As indeed there are many gods………..

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  • #313591
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    It's kind like the Hebrew word “EL” has two basic meanings as well.

    אֵל (el): Short Definition: God, Shortened from 'ayil; strength; as adjective, mighty; especially the Almighty
    (but used also of any deity) — God (god), X goodly, X great, idol, might(-y one), power, strong. Compare names in “-el.”

    1. God in the literal sense of “The Almighty”
    2. god in the figurative sense of chief or principal of a thing: 'a mighty one'

    In English we might say: Chuck Berry was the godfather (Def#2) of rock and roll.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313592
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 21 2012,06:28)

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 20 2012,13:17)
    Hi Mike, yes I do.


    Good.  So then you ARE capable of learning new things.  :)


    Hi Mike,

    What makes you think it's new to me?

    #313593
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Your question in the last post on page 41.

    #313594
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 21 2012,06:37)
    Your question in the last post on page 41.


    Hi Mike,

    Isaiah 9:6 refers to what Jesus name is called, not what Jesus is called.

    You need to go to the Septuagint (LXX) Bible to better understand what God is saying…

    Isaiah 9:6 (LXX) For a child is born to us, and a son is given to us, whose government is upon his shoulder:
    and his name is called the Messenger of great counsel: for I will bring peace upon the princes, and health to him.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313598
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 20 2012,13:44)
    Isaiah 9:6 refers to what Jesus name is called, not what Jesus is called.


    Ed,

    Check out this list of scriptures where the phrase “his name is called” (or something similar) is used.

    Would you care to go through them one by one, and see if your explanation about Isaiah 9:6 flies?

    Here's the first one from the list:
    Genesis 3:20 King James Version
    And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.

    Does this mean that Eve herself wasn't called “Eve”?  Does it mean that “only her name” was called “Eve”?   ???

    I always roll my eyes when people try to make some distinction about “his name was called…….”.  It is simply one way of saying, “he was named………..”.

    There is no secret, magical, alternate meaning to that phrase, Ed.  If it says, “his name will be called mighty god”, then it simply means “he will be called mighty god”.

    #313605
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 21 2012,07:56)

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 20 2012,13:44)
    Isaiah 9:6 refers to what Jesus name is called, not what Jesus is called.


    Ed,

    Check out this list of scriptures where the phrase “his name is called” (or something similar) is used.

    Would you care to go through them one by one, and see if your explanation about Isaiah 9:6 flies?

    Here's the first one from the list:
    Genesis 3:20 King James Version
    And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.

    Does this mean that Eve herself wasn't called “Eve”?  Does it mean that “only her name” was called “Eve”?   ???

    I always roll my eyes when people try to make some distinction about “his name was called…….”.  It is simply one way of saying, “he was named………..”.

    There is no secret, magical, alternate meaning to that phrase, Ed.  If it says, “his name will be called mighty god”, then it simply means “he will be called mighty god”.


    Hi Mike,

    Nice try, but “his name shall be called” is only used twice
    in scripture; Deuteronomy 25:10 is the ONLY other time.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313608
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 20 2012,15:14)
    ……“his name shall be called” is only used twice
    in scripture…………….


    Ed,

    Don't focus on “his” or “shall be”.  Focus on “name called” – for that is what we are discussing.

    The list I provided in my last post shows 94 similar wordings.  Please address my questions concerning the first one.  If you are unable to learn from that one, we can just keep going through the list, one by one, until you understand.

    #313614
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 21 2012,08:24)

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 20 2012,15:14)
    ……“his name shall be called” is only used twice
    in scripture…………….


    Ed,

    Don't focus on “his” or “shall be”.  Focus on “name called” – for that is what we are discussing.

    The list I provided in my last post shows 94 similar wordings.  Please address my questions concerning the first one.  If you are unable to learn from that one, we can just keep going through the list, one by one, until you understand.


    Hi Mike,

    Only Deuteronomy 25:10 is the same,
    all the others you mention are irrelevant.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313699
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Ed,

    1.  His name shall be called John.

    2.  His name shall be John.

    Tell me how the MEANING of these two sentences is different.

    #313702
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 22 2012,11:07)
    Ed,

    1.  His name shall be called John.

    2.  His name shall be John.

    Tell me how the MEANING of these two sentences is different.


    Hi Mike: not the same.

    “thou shalt call his name John.” (Luke 1:13)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313703
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 22 2012,11:07)
    Ed,

    1.  His name shall be called John.

    2.  His name shall be John.

    Tell me how the MEANING of these two sentences is different.


    Hi Mike,

    The word 'called' is left out of #2.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313704
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 22 2012,11:21)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 22 2012,11:07)
    Ed,

    1.  His name shall be called John.

    2.  His name shall be John.

    Tell me how the MEANING of these two sentences is different.


    Hi Mike,

    The word 'called' is left out of #2.

    God bless
    Ed J


    Hi Mike,

    It's irrelevant what meanings you apply to hypotheticals,
    what is important here is what do the Scriptures teach.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313828
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 21 2012,18:19)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 22 2012,11:07)
    Ed,

    1.  His name shall be called John.

    2.  His name shall be John.

    Tell me how the MEANING of these two sentences is different.


    Hi Mike: not the same.

    “thou shalt call his name John.” (Luke 1:13)


    Good scriptural example, Ed.

    Now tell me, does saying, “thou shalt call his name John” carry a different meaning than, “thou shalt call him John”?

    If so, then please explain how the MEANING of those two statements would be different.

    #313833
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 21 2012,18:19)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 24 2012,09:09)
    Hi Mike: not the same.

    “thou shalt call his name John.” (Luke 1:13)


    Good scriptural example, Ed.

    Now tell me, does saying, “thou shalt call his name John” carry a different meaning than, “thou shalt call him John”?

    If so, then please explain how the MEANING of those two statements would be different.


    Hi Mike,

    No difference, but more importantly no leeway for mischief either.
    I can't say the same for any followup refining questions
    intended to leverage open multiple meanings.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #313941
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 23 2012,16:40)

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 21 2012,18:19)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 24 2012,09:09)
    Hi Mike: not the same.

    “thou shalt call his name John.” (Luke 1:13)


    Good scriptural example, Ed.

    Now tell me, does saying, “thou shalt call his name John” carry a different meaning than, “thou shalt call him John”?

    If so, then please explain how the MEANING of those two statements would be different.


    Hi Mike,

    No difference……………..


    Exactly!

    Why then would you think there is some difference in meaning between, “his name is called the Word of God”, and “he is called the Word of God”?

    #313976
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Mike,

    “His name is called the Word of God” is a reference to the HolySpirit not Jesus.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #314111
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    So “his name is called” means exactly the same thing as “he is called” when it is convenient for you…………… but when it's not, they mean different things?

    Is that it, Ed?

    #314112
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 25 2012,23:38)
    Hi Mike,

    “His name is called the Word of God” is a reference to the HolySpirit not Jesus.


    So you say.  But that isn't the point we're discussing, Ed.  I'm wanting to know if “his name is called the Word of God” means something DIFFERENT THAN “he is called the Word of God”.

    Does it?  (And remember you just said that “his name shall be called” and “he shall be called” mean exactly the same thing in the case of John the Baptist.)

    #314114
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 28 2012,04:42)
    So “his name is called” means exactly the same thing as “he is called” when it is convenient for you…………… but when it's not, they mean different things?

    Is that it, Ed?


    Hi Mike,

    Jesus called Peter “a stone”,
    but his name was really Peter.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #314115
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 28 2012,04:45)

    Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 25 2012,23:38)
    Hi Mike,

    “His name is called the Word of God” is a reference to the HolySpirit not Jesus.


    So you say.  But that isn't the point we're discussing, Ed.  I'm wanting to know if “his name is called the Word of God” means something DIFFERENT THAN “he is called the Word of God”.

    Does it?  (And remember you just said that “his name shall be called” and “he shall be called” mean exactly the same thing in the case of John the Baptist.)


    Hi Mike,

    Jesus' name means “YA is Salvation” – that's what all
    the fuss is about; Jesus is not “The Word”, the HolySpirit is.

    Here is the difference that you are overlooking, the difference its this…

    1. “his name shall be called”  (Isaiah 9:6)     <– referring to Jesus Christ
    2. “his name is called” (Revelation 19:13)     <– referring to the HolySpirit

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

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