As indeed there are many gods………..

[mikeboll64]

Yes. That particular elohim is the ONLY one (of the MANY elohim) that is Almighty.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 24 2012,09:42)

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,16:02) Hi Mike, I will go along with your hypotheticals here, but you do know that the word is not “Eloheem” in the second instance. #1 for (אֱלֹהִים) the first occasion, referring to the Almighty (God) of Israel. #4 for (אֱלֹהֵי) the second occasion, referring to the mighty one (god) of Elkron. Okay Ed, Remember “mar” and “mari”? MARI IS THE RIGHTEOUS MAR Do you see how it looks to you like two different Aramaic words are used here?  But the sentence is just saying, “My Lord is the righteous Lord.” Do you suppose that one of those “lords” means something different than the other one, just because the first one has the added letter “i” to indicate “MY lord”? Here's another example: In Genesis 17:1, the word “Almighty” is שַׁדַּ֔י in Hebrew, but in Isaiah 13:6, it is מִשַּׁדַּ֥י, because in 13:6, it means “THE almighty”.  Now tell me, does the fact that the 13:6 Hebrew word has the added marks to make it mean “THE almighty” mean that the base word, “almighty”, all of a sudden means something other than “almighty”?

Hi Mike,

Google translates מִ as “From”,
and מִשַּׁדַּ֥י as “My breast”.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 24 2012,09:57)

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 24 2012,09:54) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 24 2012,09:15) Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,15:45) Who is the “Almighty”; Mike?     …אֱלֹ “EL”, right? I don't know what you're asking here, Ed.  Are you thinking that the word “el” is in Is 13:6?  Because it isn't. And NO, “el” in general isn't the Almighty.  Only the El OF all the other elohim is the Almighty one. Hi Mike, thank you, I will rephrase my question! Is the contextual meaning of the word “Almighty” in Isaiah 13:6 inferring to the one called the “ELoheem” of Abraham, the “ELoheem” of Isaac, and the “ELoheem” of Jacob – yes or no? God bless Ed J Yes.  That particular elohim is the ONLY one (of the MANY elohim) that is Almighty.

Hi Mike,

Thank you, that is what I have been saying all along.     …so glad we can agree!

Your brother
in Christ, Jesus.
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 21 2012,08:47)

You are slowly but surely boxing yourself into a corner Ed…

Hi Mike,

Unboxed now?

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,17:01)

Google translates מִ as “From”, and מִשַּׁדַּ֥י as “My breast”.

Where did that first word come from? It's not one of the two I posted.

Ed, you are playing games and causing me to do a lot more posting than is necessary.

Does the KJV translate as “almighty” in both Gen 17:1 AND in Is 13;6? YES or NO?

Are they both the EXACT SAME Hebrew word? YES or NO?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,17:08)

Thank you, that is what I have been saying all along. …so glad we can agree!

Ed, there are certain scriptures that teach us that Jehovah El is Almighty. So anytime Jehovah is mentioned in the scriptures, (whether he is called “EL” in that scripture or not), we can know that that particular scripture is speaking about the Almighty One.

It is not the word “el” that tells us in any particular scripture that Jehovah is Almighty, because “el” always refers to any of various “mighty ones” – whether that mighty one be Jehovah or not.

So, until you come to grips with the fact that “el” doesn't mean “almighty”, then we are not in agreement yet.

Think about it, Ed: WHY would there even BE a word for “almighty” if the word “el” already meant “almighty”?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,17:18)

Hi Mike, Unboxed now?

Not even close Ed. You are trying your best to be the little boy who insists that the sky is green and the grass is blue. But I'm getting closer and closer to bringing you to the truth with every post I make.

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 24 2012,10:43)

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,17:01) Google translates מִ as “From”, and מִשַּׁדַּ֥י as “My breast”. Where did that first word come from?  It's not one of the two I posted.   Ed, you are playing games and causing me to do a lot more posting than is necessary.   (1)Does the KJV translate as “almighty” in both Gen 17:1 AND in Is 13;6?  YES or NO? (2)Are they both the EXACT SAME Hebrew word?  YES or NO?

Hi Mike, (it was necessary to modify your question to answer in a way you will understand)

1) No

Does the AKJV Bible translate both words as “almighty”: one in Gen 17:1 AND the other in Is 13:6?  YES or NO?
No
1) Does the AKJV Bible have the word “almighty” in both of these verses: Gen 17:1 AND Is 13;6?  YES or NO?
Yes

2) No

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 24 2012,10:52)

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,17:18) Hi Mike, Unboxed now? Not even close Ed.  You are trying your best to be the little boy who insists that the sky is green and the grass is blue.  But I'm getting closer and closer to bringing you to the truth with every post I make.

Hi Mike,

You're funny, because you act like I have never studied this before.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[journey42]

Ed,
I havn't been following this, between you and Mike, but I looked at this post and noticed you answered him incorrectly?

Quote

(1)Does the KJV translate as “almighty” in both Gen 17:1 AND in Is 13;6?  YES or NO?

Ed, you answered no to this question.  I looked it up.

KJV
Genesis 17:1   And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the Lord appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect.

KJV
Isaiah 13:6   Howl ye; for the day of the Lord is at hand; it shall come as a destruction from the Almighty

Forgive me if I am misunderstanding the question?

[Ed J]

Quote (journey42 @ Aug. 24 2012,17:04)

Ed, I havn't been following this, between you and Mike, but I looked at this post and noticed you answered him incorrectly? Quote (1)Does the KJV translate as “almighty” in both Gen 17:1 AND in Is 13;6?  YES or NO? Ed, you answered no to this question.  I looked it up. KJV Genesis 17:1   And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the Lord appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect. KJV Isaiah 13:6   Howl ye; for the day of the Lord is at hand; it shall come as a destruction from the Almighty Forgive me if I am misunderstanding the question?

Hi Georgie,

How can you say I answered him wrong but then say that you don't understand – is this not confusion?

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Hi Georgie, I hope this clarifies it for you…

Genesis 17:1  אֵלשַׁדַּי  (God-Almighty)

Isaiah 13:6  מִשַׁדַּי  (The-Almighty)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 24 2012,07:33)

Quote (journey42 @ Aug. 24 2012,17:04) Ed, I havn't been following this, between you and Mike, but I looked at this post and noticed you answered him incorrectly? Quote (1)Does the KJV translate as “almighty” in both Gen 17:1 AND in Is 13;6?  YES or NO? Ed, you answered no to this question.  I looked it up. KJV Genesis 17:1   And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the Lord appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect. KJV Isaiah 13:6   Howl ye; for the day of the Lord is at hand; it shall come as a destruction from the Almighty Hi Georgie, How can you say I answered him wrong but then say that you don't understand  –  is this not confusion?

Yeah, it's confusion alright – but not on journey's part.  

Ed, here is the transliteration of the Hebrew words that are translated by the KJV as “Almigyty” in Gen 17:1 and Is 13:6……..

Gen 17:1
Transliteration:  šad·day
Hebrew:   שַׁדַּ֔י
Meaning:  almighty

Is 13:6
Transliteration:  miš·šad·day
Hebrew:  מִשַּׁדַּ֥י
Meaning:  the almighty

I ask you:  Does the “šad·day” part of the word mean something different just because the “miš” part is added in 17:1 to make it say “THE Almighty”?  Or does the “šad·day” part still mean “almighty”?  WHICH ONE PLEASE?

Now, let's do the same thing with 2 Kings 1:6………….

First use in 1:6
Transliteration:  ’ĕ·lō·hîm
Hebrew:   אֱלֹהִים֙
Meaning:  god

2nd use in 1:6
Transliteration:  ’ĕ·lō·hê
Hebrew:   אֱלֹהֵ֣י
Meaning:  the god

I ask you:  Does the “el” part of the word mean something different just because it is in a different Hebrew form to convey “THE god” in the second use?  Or do both “el” parts still mean the same thing? WHICH ONE PLEASE?

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 23 2012,19:26)

Hi Mike, You're funny, because you act like I have never studied this before.

From my point of view, it is YOU who is acting as if you've never studied this before.

[mikeboll64]

Quote (journey42 @ Aug. 24 2012,00:04)

Ed, I havn't been following this, between you and Mike, but I looked at this post and noticed you answered him incorrectly?

journey,

Ed has been “answering incorrectly” since I started this thread. I have dealt with this from Ed for about three years now. When the facts start pointing away from what he WANTS the truth to be, he is willing to start pretending that he can't even understand even the simplest of concepts.

So, if you ever want to get into a detailed discussion with Ed about “the Word is the Holy Spirit”, or anything else he believes, then prepare yourself to make about 20 times as many posts as you would have to with anyone else – because Ed likes to play games and play dumb sometimes.

Anyway, I wish you would not only follow this thread, but join in the discussion. Wakeup was here for a minute, but then disappeared.

peace,
mike

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 25 2012,07:37)

2nd use in 1:6 Transliteration:  ’ĕ·lō·hê Hebrew:   אֱלֹהֵ֣י Meaning:  the god[/color] I ask you:  Does the “el” part of the word mean something different just because it is in a different Hebrew form to convey “THE god” in the second use?  Or do both “el” parts still mean the same thing?  WHICH ONE PLEASE?

Hi Mike,

אֱלֹהֵ֣י  translates as “God”.

אֱלֹ “EL” is the same root word in both.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[mikeboll64]

Correct Ed.

Is there any reason to believe that the root word “el” means something different in its first use of the verse than in its second use?

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 26 2012,04:31)

Correct Ed. Is there any reason to believe that the root word “el” means something different in its first use of the verse than in its second use?

Hiu Mike,

First use – God
Second use – mighty one

God, goodly, great, idol, mighty one, power, strong

Shortened from 'ayil; strength; as adjective, mighty; especially the Almighty
(but used also of any deity) — God (god), X goodly, X great, idol, might(-y one), power, strong. Compare names in “-el.”

is not God “the almighty” – yes or no?

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[mikeboll64]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 26 2012,08:45)

First use – God Second use – mighty one

Ed, “God” means “mighty one”.  So thank you for acknowledging that there is no difference in the words.  What Jehovah asked is:  Is it because there isn't a mighty one in Israel that you have to go to the mighty one of Ekron?

From the context, we can be sure that WHATEVER the first use means, the second use must mean the same.  So if the first use means “God”, with a capped “G”, then so does the second use.  If the first use means “Almighty”, then so does the second use.  We know this because of the context, ie:  Is it because there isn't [ONE OF THESE] in Israel that you must go to [ONE OF THESE] in Ekron?  Whatever definition fills the first brackets must also fill the second brackets – due to context.

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 26 2012,08:45)

is not God “the almighty” – yes or no?

Jehovah, one of the MANY mighty ones, is the Almighty One.  In other words, although there are indeed MANY mighty ones, there is but one who is called the Mighty One of mighty ones (God of gods).

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 27 2012,04:00)

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 26 2012,08:45) First use – God Second use – mighty one Ed, “God” means “mighty one”.  So thank you for acknowledging that there is no difference in the words.  What Jehovah asked is:  Is it because there isn't a mighty one in Israel that you have to go to the mighty one of Ekron? From the context, we can be sure that WHATEVER the first use means, the second use must mean the same.  So if the first use means “God”, with a capped “G”, then so does the second use.  If the first use means “Almighty”, then so does the second use.  We know this because of the context, ie:  Is it because there isn't [ONE OF THESE] in Israel that you must go to [ONE OF THESE] in Ekron?  Whatever definition fills the first brackets must also fill the second brackets – due to context. Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 26 2012,08:45) is not God “the almighty” – yes or no? Jehovah, one of the MANY mighty ones, is the Almighty One.  In other words, although there are indeed MANY mighty ones, there is but one who is called the Mighty One of mighty ones (God of gods).

Hi Mike,

“The Almighty” of 'the mighty ones'.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

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