Hi, Ed,

Sorry, if I may have gotten some posts confused.  I didn’t have time to look back at them.  But if your post was the one arguing about the indefinite article in John 1, then yes, it does appear you are simply repeating some online source.  If t8 is the one who posted that material, my same response applies there.

Hi, Kerwin,

Yes, this is a hot social issue and can trigger prejudicial responses.  So, how do you know you are right?  How come you seem to know more it than the good doctor?  Don’t you think your analysis  is a result of prejudice on your part?

Hi, Kersin,

Yes, most psychologists  subscribe to the idea that sexual preferences are learned, not inherited.

Hi, Marty,

You need to look more carefully at Jn.17.  Jn.17:5 , along with Philippians 2:5-7, is stating that Christ is eternal, is God, but humbled himself and took up human flesh, became a kind of  servant, but is no  way an inferior being to God.  If I wanted to describe this in terms contemporary relational metaphysics, I would say that the…[Read more]

Hi,

Christ means more than just that.  He means  he is eternal, God,  the beginning of all creation  and the ultimate effect of creation.  As we read in Jn. 5:8,”Most assuredly, I say unto you, before Abraham was, I am.”

Hi, Marty,

Judge not, that you be not judged, my friend.  If you had read  carefully “The Revelation of John”, you would have easily noted that  the first chapter is abut “the revelation of Jesus Christ,” the coming of Christ.  This same point is also  made very clear in Rev. 22:12-21. Also, I have pointed out a number of important additio…[Read more]

Hi, Ed,

Sorry, but your case doesn’t hold any water.  It looks like  copied it from some online source who really doesn’t know Greek grammar.  Your source failed to inform you that “Theos” is not the  subject but the predicate nominative.  According to Caldwell’s Rule, in Koine Greek, the  predicate nominative does not require the definite artic…[Read more]

Hi,Ed,

Here are some additional biblical passages I think you need to take into account.   Matthew 1:23: “…call him Immanuel, which means God with us.”  That shoots down your theory that Christ was not God when born.  2 Pr. 1:1: “…by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ.”  Jn. 5:28: ” Then Jesus said to them, ‘Most assu…[Read more]

HI again, Kerwin,

Yes, true.

Hi, Kerwin,

Yes, it was foul language.  I am sure you can  read the post from the Jewpenetrator, which is what I am talking about here.

Hi, Kerwin,

Thanks for the info.

I’m a newbie here.  So far, I’ve been receiving all sorts of inflammatory posts mocking Christians.  In addition, I am receiving posts filled with four-letter words.  I don’t know what kind f a forum this is, but it surely isn’t scholarly or Christian.

Hi, t8,

You have a whoe thread her on the Trinity.  Now you tell me you’re not interested in the Trinity. Also, one more post from this forum with foul language in it, and I am going to blacklist your forum.

Your post is full of foul language and totally inappropriate in this or any other forum.

Hi, Ed,

John does not say that the Word is the Spirit.  That is your supposition.  Verse 14 onward makes it very clear that  the Word  is Christ.

He, Melvyn,

Yes, very true.  God is omnipresent.

Hi, Kerwin,

Afraid I don’t follow your post at all.  Jesus discussing sources?  What does that mean?

Oh, c’mon, Ed.  You must not have read much Scripture. Try John 1:1 and following, for starters.

HI, Ed,

The Bible does no say Jesus is a tool.  That’s why I said earlier the tool example isn’t exactly  I had in mind.  The Bible says that Christ or the Logos is God, is God’s Reason.  So yes, teh Bible is claiming Christ  is ontologically God.

Hi, Kerwin,

OK, I’m still puzzled what inclination you are speaking of, but I don’t want to pry. I am well aware that many read in “carnal lust” and passion when the Bible talks about the “flesh.’  However, actually “flesh”, in the Bible, means selfishness, insensitivity, not passionate feelings.   Sin isn’t flesh, it’s insensitivity.