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- July 22, 2004 at 10:24 pm#42382daughterofthecarpenterParticipant
Which bible version is the closest in meaning to the original writings of the bible.
July 22, 2004 at 10:35 pm#42383NickHassanParticipantHi,
None are perfect and so it pays to compare several versions and to find supporting scriptures which are always there. I, personally, have less faith in the latest versions such as NIV.Seek the Spirit as he is the Author and loves revealing truth to God's children ,teaching and reminding them of the Words of Jesus and showing what will happen in the future.
Soak in it and delve for treasures that are more precious than gold …and are eternal.
May 11, 2012 at 4:56 am#297373NickHassanParticipantHi ED,
I transferred your question here.
“Hi Kerwin,Why is the word “No” written in the N.I.V.? …No to what? “
The NIV is written to please man, not to be faithful to God IMO
May 11, 2012 at 8:18 am#297404kerwinParticipantWikipedia entry for NIV
Quote The core translation group consisted of fifteen Biblical scholars.[10] The translation took ten years and involved a team of up to 100 scholars[11] from the USA, Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand, and South Africa. The range of those participating included many different denominations such as Anglicans, Assemblies of God, Baptist, Christian Reformed, Lutheran and Presbyterian.[12] The translation is a balance between word-for-word and thought-for-thought.[13][14][8] Recent archaeological and linguistic discoveries helped in understanding passages that have traditionally been difficult to translate. Familiar spellings of traditional translations were generally retained.[15]
Wikipedia entry for KJV
Quote Like Tyndale's translation and the Geneva Bible, the Authorized Version was translated primarily from Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic texts, although with secondary reference both to the Latin Vulgate, and to more recent scholarly Latin versions; two books of the Apocrypha were translated from a Latin source. Following the example of the Geneva Bible, words implied but not actually in the original source were distinguished by being printed in distinct type (albeit inconsistently), but otherwise the translators explicitly rejected word-for-word equivalence.[103] F.F Bruce gives an example from Romans Chapter 5:[104] 2 By whom also wee have accesse by faith, into this grace wherein wee stand, and rejoyce in hope of the glory of God. 3 And not onely so, but we glory in tribulations also, knowing that tribulation worketh patience:
The English terms “rejoice” and “glory” stand for the same word in the Greek original. In Tyndale, Geneva and the Bishops' Bibles, both instances are translated “rejoice”. In the Douay-Rheims New Testament, both are translated “glory”. Only in the Authorized Version does the translation vary between the two verses.
May 11, 2012 at 8:31 am#297407NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
Carnal men do not know the thoughts of God.
I would not like to be in their shoes.May 11, 2012 at 8:38 am#297408kerwinParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ May 11 2012,14:31) Hi KW,
Carnal men do not know the thoughts of God.
I would not like to be in their shoes.
Nick;Carnal men were involved in both translations.
May 11, 2012 at 8:46 am#297409NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
But the mention of THOUGHTS relates to the NIV.
Did you know they ADDED the word JESUS [for HIS] in jn 12.41?May 11, 2012 at 11:30 am#297465Ed JParticipantQuote (kerwin @ May 11 2012,19:18) Wikipedia entry for NIV Quote The core translation group consisted of fifteen Biblical scholars.[10] The translation took ten years and involved a team of up to 100 scholars[11] from the USA, Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand, and South Africa. The range of those participating included many different denominations such as Anglicans, Assemblies of God, Baptist, Christian Reformed, Lutheran and Presbyterian.[12] The translation is a balance between word-for-word and thought-for-thought.[13][14][8] Recent archaeological and linguistic discoveries helped in understanding passages that have traditionally been difficult to translate. Familiar spellings of traditional translations were generally retained.[15]
Wikipedia entry for KJV
Quote Like Tyndale's translation and the Geneva Bible, the Authorized Version was translated primarily from Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic texts, although with secondary reference both to the Latin Vulgate, and to more recent scholarly Latin versions; two books of the Apocrypha were translated from a Latin source. Following the example of the Geneva Bible, words implied but not actually in the original source were distinguished by being printed in distinct type (albeit inconsistently), but otherwise the translators explicitly rejected word-for-word equivalence.[103] F.F Bruce gives an example from Romans Chapter 5:[104] 2 By whom also wee have accesse by faith, into this grace wherein wee stand, and rejoyce in hope of the glory of God. 3 And not onely so, but we glory in tribulations also, knowing that tribulation worketh patience:
The English terms “rejoice” and “glory” stand for the same word in the Greek original. In Tyndale, Geneva and the Bishops' Bibles, both instances are translated “rejoice”. In the Douay-Rheims New Testament, both are translated “glory”. Only in the Authorized Version does the translation vary between the two verses.
Hi Kerwin,The 'Codex Vaticanvs' and the 'Codex Sinaiticvs' are both corrupt versions of the Greek manuscripts.
The 'Nestle Test', which is a blending of these two, is what the N.I.V. was translated from. …so naturally the N.I.V. is corrupt as well.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMay 11, 2012 at 7:46 pm#297523kerwinParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ May 11 2012,14:46) Hi KW,
But the mention of THOUGHTS relates to the NIV.
Did you know they ADDED the word JESUS [for HIS] in jn 12.41?
Nick;The NIV like the KJV fall short of the glory of God because the translators were not carried along by the Spirit.
The thought for thought assumes the translators understands the thoughts but translating from newer manuscripts as the AKJV does; just means you are borrowing the errors of someone else.
Do you believe any obstacles that Satan throws up in either version will keep those that seek God from finding him? We have a living God that speaks to us in many ways.
May 11, 2012 at 7:51 pm#297526NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
Yes.
Deliberate additions as with JESUS in the NIV Jn12 or the famous KJV margin addition of 1Jn5.7 are obstacles to the immature.May 12, 2012 at 8:32 am#297638kerwinParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ May 12 2012,01:51) Hi KW,
Yes.
Deliberate additions as with JESUS in the NIV Jn12 or the famous KJV margin addition of 1Jn5.7 are obstacles to the immature.
Nick;There are obstacles that will cause men to stumble. The King James conceals the names of the places of the afterlife and the second death by labeling Hades/Sheol, Tartarus, and Gehenna all as Hell. The NIV is less extreme but it does not use Hades/Sheol in the Old Testament but does in the New. It instead translates Hades/Sheol to the technically correct; though misleading Grave.
May 12, 2012 at 8:33 am#297639Ed JParticipantQuote (kerwin @ May 12 2012,06:46) The NIV like the KJV fall short of the glory of God
What does this mean?May 13, 2012 at 3:17 am#297694kerwinParticipantQuote (Ed J @ May 12 2012,14:33) Quote (kerwin @ May 12 2012,06:46) The NIV like the KJV fall short of the glory of God
What does this mean?
Ed J.Both are corrupt; while God is not.
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