three days and three nights

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  • #12061
    Sammo
    Participant

    Hi all

    http://www.godstruthfortoday.org/Library/knoch/FiguresOfSpeech.htm

    This article goes into detail about the use of figures of speech in the Bible. I'll quote the most salient bit:

    Quote
    An Idiom (Idioma) is an expression or mannerism, peculiar to a language, which does not convey the proper sense when literally translated. Most of the so-called idioms are merely figures of speech, or unusual expressions, some of which may be transferred from one language into another. Some refer to peculiar customs, hence should be kept, as, “ breaking bread” or “ taking tea.” “ Breaking bread” is the figure of Near Association, for to this day bread is actually broken with meals, and stands for partaking of ordinary food. The phrase, “ three days and three nights” (Matt. 12:40), for that which extends into three days, no matter how little; is nearer a true idiom, for it contains no figure and conveys an idea contrary to its literal meaning. Besides the grammatical idiom and the words, the following may be mentioned: the evilly having (the ill), Mark 1:32; take hold of hand (be patron), Heb. 8:9; voice of mouth, Acts 22:14; open the mouth (speak), Acts 18:14; turn back on the Lord (to the Lord), Acts 11:21; doing time (spending time), Acts 18:23; faith in one another (one another’s faith), Rom. 1:12.


    Thus the true meaning of “three days and three nights” turns out to be different to it's literal meaning. It's an idiom.

    Bullinger agrees:

    Quote
    “From all this it is perfectly clear that nothing is to be gained by forcing the one passage (Matt.12:40) to have the literal meaning, in the face of all these other passages which distinctly state that the Lord died and was buried the day before the Sabbath and rose the day after it, viz., the first day of the week. These many statements are literal and are history: but the one passage is an idiom which means any part of 'three days and three nights.' The one complete day and night (24 hours) and the parts of two nights (36 hours in all) fully satisfy both the idiom and history.” p.345-346 Figures of Speech Used in the Bible, by E.W. Bullinger.


    It seems that there's a similar case in 1 Samuel 30 – this is taken from the Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament:

    Quote
    “It is annually recalled in the Passover instructive, in this connection, are three days and three nights of 1.Sam.30:12. Verse 13 plainly says, 'Today is the third [day].' Therefore it may be concluded that the expression is a stereotyped formula which applies when any part of three days is involved, not an affirmation that seventy-two hours have expired


    So saying “three days and three nights” is an idiomatic way of saying “anytime in three days”. Since Jews count inclusively, this perfectly fits a Friday crucifixion. (Source.)

    Finally, this is taken from John Lightfoot's commentary on Matthew:

    Quote
    40. For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

    [The Son of man shall be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.] 1. The Jewish writers extend that memorable station of the unmoving sun at Joshua's prayer to six-and-thirty hours; for so Kimchi upon that place: “According to more exact interpretation, the sun and moon stood still for six-and-thirty hours: for when the fight was on the eve of the sabbath, Joshua feared lest the Israelites might break the sabbath: therefore he spread abroad his hands, that the sun might stand still on the sixth day, according to the measure of the day of the sabbath, and the moon, according to the measure of the night of the sabbath, and of the going-out of the sabbath; which amounts to six-and-thirty hours.”

    II. If you number the hours that passed from our Saviour's giving up the ghost upon the cross to his resurrection, you shall find almost the same number of hours; and yet that space is called by him “three days and three nights,” when as two nights only came between, and only one complete day. Nevertheless, while he speaks these words, he is not without the consent both of the Jewish schools, and their computation. Weigh well that which is disputed in the tract Schabbath, concerning the uncleanness of a woman for three days; where many things are discussed by the Gemarists concerning the computation of this space of three days. Among other things these words occur; “R. Ismael saith, Sometimes it contains four Onoth sometimes five, sometimes six. But how much is the space of an Onah? R. Jochanan saith either a day or a night.” And so also the Jerusalem Talmud; “R. Akiba fixed a day for an Onah, and a night for an Onah: but the tradition is, that R. Eliezar Ben Azariah said, A day and a night make an Onah, and a part of an Onah is as the whole.” And a little after, R. Ismael computeth a part of the Onah for the whole.

    It is not easy to translate the word Onah into good Latin: for to some it is the same with the half of a natural day; to some it is all one with a whole natural day. According to the first sense we may observe, from the words of R. Ismael, that sometimes four Onoth, or halves of a natural day, may be accounted for three days: and that they also are so numbered that one part or the other of those halves may be accounted for a whole. Compare the latter sense with the words of our Saviour, which are now before us: “A day and a night (saith the tradition) make an Onah, and a part of an Onah is as the whole.” Therefore Christ may truly be said to have been in his grave three Onoth, or three natural days (when yet the greatest part of the first day was wanting, and the night altogether, and the greatest part by far of the third day also), the consent of the schools and dialect of the nation agreeing thereunto. For, “the least part of the Onah concluded the whole.” So that according to this idiom, that diminutive part of the third day upon which Christ arose may be computed for the whole day, and the night following it.


    Again, this makes it clear that the phrase is an idiom, and not to be taken literally. Any part of 3 days satifisies the expression “three days and three nights” – it doesn't necessitate a literal 72 hour period. (Source.)

    So far as I'm aware, Matt 12:40 is the main evidence against a Friday crucifixion. To me, this criticism evaporates in the light of the above – all that leaves is plenty of good reasons that the crucifixion must have been on a Friday.

    Comments?

    #12065
    seekingtruth
    Participant

    Quoting non-scriptural sources which share your view point, then I choose to quote truebelief4u Mar. 27 2006,18:03 post (just a few up), he did a very good job.

    #12924
    truebelief4u
    Participant

    Quote (liljon @ Mar. 28 2006,04:06)
    wednesday will not work and simple looking at the gospels will show this .Jesus repeatedley said he would rise THE THIRD DAY.
    http://www.bible.ca/d-3-days-and-3-nights.htm
    Esther 4-5 will show that three days and three nights doesn't nescarily have to be 3 full twenty four hour days.


    You're not checking the links. Wednesday is correct. When the Hebrew idion “nights/days” is used, it NEVER means part of a day…it ALWAYS means one full 24 hour period.

    SEE: http://www.bibarch.com/Perspectives/CP/CP–The-Crucifixion.htm (This is an excellent article and may help you see the timeline much better.)

    The non-metaphorical literal language in Matthew's gospel states unequivocally that Jesus would be in the heart of the earth (his tomb) for “three days and three nights,” that is for not less than 72 hours, as Jonah, who remained dead for the same period, was in the belly of the sea creature (Matthew 12:40 cf. Jonah 1:17). Indisputable confirmation of this non-metaphorical literal language occurs four times in the Gospels, where the Greek says “after three days”, at Mark 8:31, 9:31 , 10:34, and Matthew 27:63, where the context of each requires the Resurrection to have occurred after three full days (three 24-hour periods, from sunset to sunset). There simply cannot be “three days and three nights” in in a period which at the very most could not be than thirty-six hours and no more than two nights. Is anyone justified, then, to conclude that this expression is a figure of speech and an approximation? Of course not, but some do so anyway.

    #12926
    Ramblinrose
    Participant

    The following are articles that support the 'sign of Jonah' being three days and three nights and a Wednesday crucifixion.

    Leaving Babylon – The Sign of Jonah

    Good Friday is a Myth – Part 1

    Good Friday is a Myth – Part 2

    #12927
    truebelief4u
    Participant

    Quote (Ramblinrose @ April 26 2006,05:12)
    The following are articles that support the 'sign of Jonah' being three days and three nights and a Wednesday crucifixion.

    Leaving Babylon – The Sign of Jonah

    Good Friday is a Myth – Part 1

    Good Friday is a Myth – Part 2


    Ramblin….you're right on top of this, aren't you! Glad to see I'm not the only one paying attention to what the Bible actually says, rather than man-made tradition!

    #24350
    NickHassan
    Participant

    This is topical.

    #32381
    NickHassan
    Participant

    topical casey.

    #40649
    NickHassan
    Participant

    topical

    #60717
    NickHassan
    Participant

    topical

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