The true meaning of the word ‘God’ – The Trinity Doctrine

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  • #814541
    kerwin
    Participant

    @t8,

    Jeremiah was born a prophet to the nations(Jeremiah 1:5) and I was not so was Jeremiah a ordinary man?

    #814549
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    So you came in the flesh.

    I don’t see that term applied to anyone else.

    Sure I was born with human nature. But I didn’t come in the flesh from somewhere else that I know of.

    #814550
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Jeremiah was no ordinary person that is for sure. But he was a normal man that I know of.

    And I agree that Jesus became a man like us. Not doubting that. He came in the flesh.

    But what is not ordinary about Jesus is his origin which is ancient.

    He existed in the form of God and came in the flesh. Now he is with the Father in the glory that he had with him before the cosmos.

    Jeremiah cannot compete with that.

    #814553
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi t8,

    So the term does not relate to the birth of Jesus either.

    So what does it mean?

    #814556
    kerwin
    Participant

    @t8,

    But what is not ordinary about Jesus is his origin which is ancient.

    Scripture teaches us that all believers that are proved true have ancient origins. After all God “saved [them] and called [them] with a holy calling … given to [them] in Christ Jesus before the world began…” (1 Timothy 1:9)

    In short they originated before the world began.

    #814557
    kerwin
    Participant

    @t8,

    He existed in the form of God…

    This clause is absurd as it disagrees with Genesis 1:1. God created the universe which contains the outward form so he does not have one.

    In short Jesus never existed in the outward form of God because the claim he did breaks with scripture.

    #814777
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Hi t8,

    So the term does not relate to the birth of Jesus either.

    So what does it mean?

    What term? “Jesus came in the flesh”?

    who, though he was in the form of God,
        did not regard equality with God
        as something to be exploited,
    but emptied himself,
        taking the form of a slave,
        being born in human LIKENESS.
    And being found in human form,
        he humbled himself
        and became obedient to the point of death—
        even death on a cross.

    Therefore God also highly exalted him
        and gave him the name
        that is above every name,
    10 so that at the name of Jesus
        every knee should bend,
        in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
    11 and every tongue should confess
        that Jesus Christ is Lord,
        to the glory of God the Father.

    See that Nick, he was born in human likeness. See that Kerwin. He was in the form of God or had divine nature.

    You guys are arguing with scripture.

    Don’t shoot the messenger.

    #814778
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Scripture teaches us that all believers that are proved true have ancient origins.

    I will admit it is possible that we may have lived before and came to Earth. But there is no real proof that this is true, albeit a few verses that could be taken that way. So would not rule it out because it doesn’t say we didn’t exist in another form before coming here.

    But it says this of Jesus so that is definite. Your quoted verse could imply that.

    #814779
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Jeremiah was born a prophet to the nations(Jeremiah 1:5) and I was not so was Jeremiah a ordinary man?

    Jeremiah would have sinned like all men. But Jesus was the second Adam. There was a time when the first Adam had not sinned, but Jeremiah was the natural offspring of Adam as you are I are/were. It puts being born-again in perspective.

    #814810
    hoghead1
    Participant

    Actually, nobody today uses the 1611 edition of the KJV.   Except for serious historical scholars, no one would want to read it, as it uses radically different spellings, was in Gothic lettering, included the Apocrypha, and contains many words that had very different meanings back then.  Over the years the KJV has been updated.  Between the 1611 and our modern version of the KJV, there are about 20,000 changes made in word usage, punctuation, spelling, etc.

    #814831
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Thanks for the info hoghead1.

    #814843
    942767
    Participant

    Hi t8:

    He existed in the form of God…

    And so, you are saying that he existed in this form prior to his birth into this world.  What does that mean?  Please show anywhere in the OT where it speaks of him being in the form of God.  I just posted the vision of Isaiah 6.  Is this what you are talking about?

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #814844
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi T8,

    Why do you misquote scripture?

     

    Scripture does not say Jesus came in the flesh.

    Do you not believe Jesus Christ came in the flesh??

    #814845
    942767
    Participant

    Hi t8:

    Also, John 1 states “the Word was God”.   If this refers to the pre-existent Jesus.  Should it not read “the Word was in the form of God”?  The scriptures have made it clear that there is but “One God” and they identify Him “as the Father”.  He did come in the flesh although he was not born of the “sperm of man”.  Conceived of the Holy Ghost, he came in the likeness of sinful flesh.

    #814847
    hoghead1
    Participant

    You’re welcome, t8.  That’s what I am here for.  I have a doctorate in theology and am try8ng to be as helpful as possible.

    #814848
    hoghead1
    Participant

    On the basis of passages such as the prologue to Jn., Trinitarians maintain that Christ pre-existed.  That’s why Trinitarian formulations often say “begotten, not made,” meaning there never was a time when Christ didn’t exist.

    #814849
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi H,

    Yes.

    It is because they do not recognise or respect the Spirit in him.

    #814851
    hoghead1
    Participant

    Doesn’t saying the “Word was God” make it clear the Word is God?  Why would it have to say the Was in the form of God?  I don’t follow you here.

    #814852
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Hoghead1.

    Do you think WAS is the same as IS?

    #814853
    hoghead1
    Participant

    Yes, definitely.  The passage is saying the Word is God.

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