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Hi,
God has servants who minister in His name.
Christ is a faithful servant of God.Acts 3
“13”The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of our fathers, has glorified His servant Jesus, the one whom you delivered and disowned in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release Him.”
Acts 3
” 26″For you first, God raised up His Servant and sent Him to bless you by turning every one of you from your wicked ways.”
Acts 4
' 27″For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, “
Acts 4
“30while You extend Your hand to heal, and signs and wonders take place through the name of Your holy servant Jesus.”Why do men confuse the servant Son with his Master God?
Quote Why do men confuse the servant Son with his Master God? I would suspect it is because God's cheif opposition has blinded mens minds to the truth, in order to confuse God in men's minds and make him unknowable, impersonal, a mystery.
When people are confronted with a mystery, something that seems to defy known logic, often they don't even attempt to understand it.
Satan knows this.
God is knowable however and we are told to draw close to him. We are take in knowledge of him and his son, whom he sent forth. It's hard to draw close to a mystery.
Hi,
Christ and Moses serve God.
Revelation 15:3
And they sing the song of Moses the servant of God, and the song of the Lamb, saying, Great and marvellous are thy works, Lord God Almighty; just and true are thy ways, thou King of saints.Tim2,
I've shared this senerio before here, but what if your Thomas was stretching out his hands to the Lord and said, “My Lord,” and then stretched his hands towards heaven, with gratefulness, and said, “and my God!”That changes things, doesn't it. And the thing is……………..we'll never know!
Scary to put your hope on a verse that could so easily NOT mean what you hope it does. Or what you are guessing it does.Indeed, how is it possible for Jesus to serve his God, and still be that God?
It's a MYSTERY to me……. :;
Quote (Tim2 @ April 19 2007,09:28) Jesus is God. John 20:28. Tim
Sure Jesus is called 'God' in scripture
just like Moses [Exo 4.16, 7.1) another servant of Almighty GOD!!No one denies that Jesus is called 'God' (for sure at least) 2 times in the NT,
John 20.28 & Heb 1.8 (based on Psa 45.6).However in what context?
If Jesus is Almighty GOD's servant then it ought to be obvious
that Jesus of Nazareth cannot himself be GOD Almighty.
Therefore Jesus the Messiah is NOT Almighty GOD … He is however, GOD's Servant.Now here is a little word study anyone can do …
King David is called in Scripture, GOD's servant …
[1 Sam 23.10, 25.39, 2 Sam 3.18, 7.5,8,20,26, etc.]
… so obviously he is NOT Almighty GOD! Obviously!Now turn to Isaiah where this prophet speaks of another servant!
(Isa 42:1-4) Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. 2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street. 3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth. 4 He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.
FYI, the same Hebrew word used for 'servant' in regards to David; is the same Hebrew word used for the 'servant' described in Isa 42.
Now who is this servant? Let's turn to the NT.
(Mat 12:15-21) But when Jesus knew it, he withdrew himself from thence: and great multitudes followed him, and he healed them all; 16 And charged them that they should not make him known: 17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, 18 Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall show judgment to the Gentiles. 19 He shall not strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. 20 A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. 21 And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
Obviously the answer is Jesus the Messiah!
Who else is equally called GOD's servant in the NT?
Ans: David … Luke 1.69, Acts 4.25Now look at this! The Greek equiv. word used for 'servant' in regards to David is pais
And obviously since David is GOD's servant he cannot himself be Almighty GOD! Obviously!Who else is called GOD's pais??
That's right! Jesus of Nazareth the Messiah.
The same Greek word is used in Matt 12.18.
As well as … (NASB) …- Acts 3.13: The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of our fathers, has glorified His servant Jesus, the one whom you delivered and disowned in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release Him.
- Acts 3.26: For you first, God raised up His Servant and sent Him to bless you by turning every one of you from your wicked ways.
- Acts 4.24-30: And when they heard this, they lifted their voices to God with one accord and said, O Lord, it is You who MADE THE HEAVEN AND THE EARTH AND THE SEA, AND ALL THAT IS IN THEM,
- 25 who by the Holy Spirit, through the mouth of our father David Your servant, said, 'WHY DID THE GENTILES RAGE, AND THE PEOPLES DEVISE FUTILE THINGS?
26 'THE KINGS OF THE EARTH TOOK THEIR STAND, AND THE RULERS WERE GATHERED TOGETHER AGAINST THE LORD AND AGAINST HIS CHRIST.' - 27 For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, 28 to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur.
29 And now, Lord, take note of their threats, and grant that Your bond-servants may speak Your word with all confidence, - 30 while You extend Your hand to heal, and signs and wonders take place through the name of Your holy servant Jesus.
Did you see that? 4 times the NASB translation shows that Jesus is indeed GOD's servant?
Why? Because the very same Greek word meaning 'servant' used for David in Luke 1.69 & Acts 4.25; is the same Greek word used for Jesus in Acts 3:13,26,27,30!!!Jesus is GOD's servant and that's Post-Resurrection!!
And the Obvious Fact that applied to David applies to his descendant
Jesus of Nazareth the Promised Messiah Too!!(The KJV translators I am assuming because of their theological bias rather call the post-resurrection Jesus a 'child' [4.27,30] than the obvious translation, 'servant'.
Yes; pais can in context be translated 'son'.
However, in the context of Acts, pais ought to be translated 'servant' (as seen in other translations); seeing that the word used for 'son' in regards to Jesus is huios
That's theological bias for you!!)Just as David is GOD's servant … the same word is used to describe the resurrected Messiah.
He is GOD's servant.The implication is obvious …
Jesus the Messiah is Almighty GOD's servant whom Almighty GOD both anointed and glorified.
Therefore, Jesus is not and cannot be Almighty GOD himself; no more than David or Moses!Quote (Adam Pastor @ April 20 2007,06:20) Quote (Tim2 @ April 19 2007,09:28) Jesus is God. John 20:28. Tim
Sure Jesus is called 'God' in scripture
just like Moses [Exo 4.16, 7.1) another servant of Almighty GOD!!No one denies that Jesus is called 'God' (for sure at least) 2 times in the NT,
John 20.28 & Heb 1.8 (based on Psa 45.6).However in what context?
If Jesus is Almighty GOD's servant then it ought to be obviously
that Jesus of Nazareth cannot himself be GOD Almighty.
Therefore Jesus the Messiah is NOT Almighty GOD … He is however, GOD's Servant.Now here is a little word study anyone can do …
King David is called in Scripture, GOD's servant …
[1 Sam 23.10, 25.39, 2 Sam 3.18, 7.5,8,20,26, etc.]
… so obviously he is NOT Almighty GOD! Obviously!Now turn to Isaiah where this prophet speaks of another servant!
(Isa 42:1-4) Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. 2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street. 3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth. 4 He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.
FYI, the same Hebrew word used for 'servant' in regards to David; is the same Hebrew word used for the 'servant' described in Isa 42.
Now who is this servant? Let's turn to the NT.
(Mat 12:15-21) But when Jesus knew it, he withdrew himself from thence: and great multitudes followed him, and he healed them all; 16 And charged them that they should not make him known: 17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, 18 Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall show judgment to the Gentiles. 19 He shall not strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. 20 A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. 21 And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
Obviously the answer is Jesus the Messiah!
Who else is equally called GOD's servant in the NT?
Ans: David … Luke 1.69, Acts 4.25Now look at this! The Greek equiv. word used for 'servant' in regards to David is pais
And obviously since David is GOD's servant he cannot himself be Almighty GOD! Obviously!Who else is called GOD's pais??
That's right! Jesus of Nazareth the Messiah.
The same Greek word is used in Matt 12.18.
As well as … (NASB) …- Acts 3.13: The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of our fathers, has glorified His servant Jesus, the one whom you delivered and disowned in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release Him.
- Acts 3.26: For you first, God raised up His Servant and sent Him to bless you by turning every one of you from your wicked ways.
- Acts 4.24-30: And when they heard this, they lifted their voices to God with one accord and said, O Lord, it is You who MADE THE HEAVEN AND THE EARTH AND THE SEA, AND ALL THAT IS IN THEM,
- 25 who by the Holy Spirit, through the mouth of our father David Your servant, said, 'WHY DID THE GENTILES RAGE, AND THE PEOPLES DEVISE FUTILE THINGS?
26 'THE KINGS OF THE EARTH TOOK THEIR STAND, AND THE RULERS WERE GATHERED TOGETHER AGAINST THE LORD AND AGAINST HIS CHRIST.' - 27 For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, 28 to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur.
29 And now, Lord, take note of their threats, and grant that Your bond-servants may speak Your word with all confidence, - 30 while You extend Your hand to heal, and signs and wonders take place through the name of Your holy servant Jesus.
Did you see that? 4 times the NASB translation shows that Jesus is indeed GOD's servant?
Why? Because the very same Greek word meaning 'servant' used for David in Luke 1.69 & Acts 4.25; is the same Greek word used for Jesus in Acts 3:13,26,27,30!!!Jesus is GOD's servant and that's Post-Resurrection!!
And the Obvious Fact that applied to David applies to his descendant
Jesus of Nazareth the Promised Messiah Too!!(The KJV translators I am assuming because of their theological bias rather call the post-resurrection Jesus a 'child' [4.27,30] than the obvious translation, 'servant'.
Yes; pais can in context be translated 'son'.
However, in the context of Acts, pais ought to be translated 'servant' (as seen in other translations); seeing that the word used for 'son' in regards to Jesus is huios
That's theological bias for you!!)Just as David is GOD's servant … the same word is used to describe the resurrected Messiah.
He is GOD's servant.The implication is obvious …
Jesus the Messiah is Almighty GOD's servant whom Almighty GOD both anointed and glorified.
Therefore, Jesus is not and cannot be Almighty GOD himself; no more than David or Moses!
APOOPS. You forgot…
Jn 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the *Word was God*.AP
Since you do apply Old Testament to Yeshua as a man. Then maybe you should also apply the Old Testament scriptures to him as deity, YHWY, The Lord from heaven as scriptures so plainly show.
The Name LORD, YHWH is the name for God. But a close examination of the use of this name in OT scriptures shows that the name is applied to both the Father and the Son
Just one example…
Zech 14:
1 Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, and thy spoil shall be divided in the midst of thee.
2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
4 And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south.
5 And ye shall flee to the valley of the mountains; for the valley of the mountains shall reach unto Azal: yea, ye shall flee, like as ye fled from before the earthquake in the days of Uzziah king of Judah: *and the LORD my God shall come, and all the saints with thee*.
6 And it shall come to pass in that day, that the light shall not be clear, nor dark:
7 But it shall be one day which shall be known to the LORD, not day, nor night: but it shall come to pass, that at evening time it shall be light.
8 And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be.
9 And the LORD shall be *king over all the earth*: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one.If you notice the first and second verse seems to be the Father speaking, then in vrs 3 he says “Then the Lord, (YHWH)” as if he is speaking of another and a closer look shows he is speaking of Yeshua.
“And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives”, without question this is Yeshua.
Now if the writer was just meaning Jesus is his agent, he wouldnt have used “His feet”, then in verse 5 he says, “and *the LORD(YHWH) my God* shall come, and all the saints with thee”.
See Mk 8:38 and Matt 25:31 and Rev 1:7 and Jud 1:14. The scriptures show Jesus coming with the Holy Angels and his saints.
Then in verse 9 he says…
And the LORD,(YHWH) shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his *name one*
Notice there is *One Lord* his name is one.
Who is this that has a name above all names and is the King of Kings and Lord of Lords and will rule in his Kingdom?
His name is Yeshua which means “YHWH” is salvation!
Jesus said *My Kingdom* is not of this world!
Now couple this with 1 Tim 3:16 and Jn 1:1 and Jn 1:14 and Jn 20:28 and Acts 20:28 and Phil 2 and Hebrews 1:8 and 1 Pet 1:1 and you have a full understanding of “ALL” scriptures concerning him, who is “the Lord from heaven”.
1 Cor 15:47
The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the *Lord from heaven*.His Glory as God he will not share with another.
Quote (Not3in1 @ April 20 2007,04:35) Tim2,
I've shared this senerio before here, but what if your Thomas was stretching out his hands to the Lord and said, “My Lord,” and then stretched his hands towards heaven, with gratefulness, and said, “and my God!”That changes things, doesn't it. And the thing is……………..we'll never know!
Scary to put your hope on a verse that could so easily NOT mean what you hope it does. Or what you are guessing it does.Indeed, how is it possible for Jesus to serve his God, and still be that God?
It's a MYSTERY to me……. :;
Hi not3,
It seems to be the only verse that he now quotes as “evidence”, and it is not Christ's teaching, so that PROPOSITION is seeming to be weaker by the day.Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 20 2007,07:16) Quote (Not3in1 @ April 20 2007,04:35) Tim2,
I've shared this senerio before here, but what if your Thomas was stretching out his hands to the Lord and said, “My Lord,” and then stretched his hands towards heaven, with gratefulness, and said, “and my God!”That changes things, doesn't it. And the thing is……………..we'll never know!
Scary to put your hope on a verse that could so easily NOT mean what you hope it does. Or what you are guessing it does.Indeed, how is it possible for Jesus to serve his God, and still be that God?
It's a MYSTERY to me……. :;
Hi not3,
It seems to be the only verse that he now quotes as “evidence”, and it is not Christ's teaching, so that PROPOSITION is seeming to be weaker by the day.
Nick,Your rejection of Thomas is rejection of Jesus. Luke 10:16. But at least you're honest. You and Thomas are not in the same church. Only one of you is saved. I'll go with Thomas.
Not3in1,
Your argument here is deliberate obfuscation. It's the same thing you did with 1 John 5:20. And the same thing David does every time proskyneo is used of Jesus. It's really sad. You need to stop and think about what you're doing. When presented with direct testimony that Jesus is God (said TO Jesus if you'll read the text), your only resort is to say the Bible isn't clear. So to attack the Trinity you attack the Bible. God is not a God of confusion. 1 Cor. 14:33.
Tim
Hi Tim2,
Precisely because our God is not a God of confusion you need to make sure of your PROPOSITION
and clarify what so far is only PRETTY CLEAR even to you, before you try to use it as a useful tool.My dictionary isn't close by, and “obfuscation” is a 50 center for me……… It almost sounds like your swearing? Ha!
Tim2, all I'm saying is – COULD IT BE POSSIBLE? And the answer is yes because we were not there!
Of course he said it to Jesus. BUT WERE YOU THERE – IN THE ROOM? I know you don't want to say what I have purposed is possibly, but the simple truth is – it is possible.
To Tim2
Quote (Tim2 @ April 19 2007,09:28) Jesus is God. John 20:28. Tim
Sure Jesus is called 'God' in scripture
just like Moses [Exo 4.16, 7.1) another servant of Almighty GOD!!No one denies that Jesus is called 'God' (for sure at least) 2 times in the NT,
John 20.28 & Heb 1.8 (based on Psa 45.6).However in what context?
If Jesus is Almighty GOD's servant then it ought to be obvious
that Jesus of Nazareth cannot himself be GOD Almighty.
Therefore Jesus the Messiah is NOT Almighty GOD … He is however, GOD's Servant.Now here is a little word study anyone can do …
King David is called in Scripture, GOD's servant …
[1 Sam 23.10, 25.39, 2 Sam 3.18, 7.5,8,20,26, etc.]
… so obviously he is NOT Almighty GOD! Obviously!Now turn to Isaiah where this prophet speaks of another servant!
(Isa 42:1-4) Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles. 2 He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street. 3 A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth. 4 He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.
FYI, the same Hebrew word used for 'servant' in regards to David; is the same Hebrew word used for the 'servant' described in Isa 42.
Now who is this servant? Let's turn to the NT.
(Mat 12:15-21) But when Jesus knew it, he withdrew himself from thence: and great multitudes followed him, and he healed them all; 16 And charged them that they should not make him known: 17 That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, 18 Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall show judgment to the Gentiles. 19 He shall not strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. 20 A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. 21 And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.
Obviously the answer is Jesus the Messiah!
Who else is equally called GOD's servant in the NT?
Ans: David … Luke 1.69, Acts 4.25Now look at this! The Greek equiv. word used for 'servant' in regards to David is pais
And obviously since David is GOD's servant he cannot himself be Almighty GOD! Obviously!Who else is called GOD's pais??
That's right! Jesus of Nazareth the Messiah.
The same Greek word is used in Matt 12.18.
As well as … (NASB) …- Acts 3.13: The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, the God of our fathers, has glorified His servant Jesus, the one whom you delivered and disowned in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release Him.
- Acts 3.26: For you first, God raised up His Servant and sent Him to bless you by turning every one of you from your wicked ways.
- Acts 4.24-30: And when they heard this, they lifted their voices to God with one accord and said, O Lord, it is You who MADE THE HEAVEN AND THE EARTH AND THE SEA, AND ALL THAT IS IN THEM,
- 25 who by the Holy Spirit, through the mouth of our father David Your servant, said, 'WHY DID THE GENTILES RAGE, AND THE PEOPLES DEVISE FUTILE THINGS?
26 'THE KINGS OF THE EARTH TOOK THEIR STAND, AND THE RULERS WERE GATHERED TOGETHER AGAINST THE LORD AND AGAINST HIS CHRIST.' - 27 For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, 28 to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur.
29 And now, Lord, take note of their threats, and grant that Your bond-servants may speak Your word with all confidence, - 30 while You extend Your hand to heal, and signs and wonders take place through the name of Your holy servant Jesus.
Did you see that? 4 times the NASB translation shows that Jesus is indeed GOD's servant?
Why? Because the very same Greek word meaning 'servant' used for David in Luke 1.69 & Acts 4.25; is the same Greek word used for Jesus in Acts 3:13,26,27,30!!!Jesus is GOD's servant and that's Post-Resurrection!!
And the Obvious Fact that applied to David applies to his descendant
Jesus of Nazareth the Promised Messiah Too!!(The KJV translators I am assuming because of their theological bias rather call the post-resurrection Jesus a 'child' [4.27,30] than the obvious translation, 'servant'.
Yes; pais can in context be translated 'son'.
However, in the context of Acts, pais ought to be translated 'servant' (as seen in other translations); seeing that the word used for 'son' in regards to Jesus is huios
That's theological bias for you!!)Just as David is GOD's servant … the same word is used to describe the resurrected Messiah.
He is GOD's servant.The implication is obvious …
Jesus the Messiah is Almighty GOD's servant whom Almighty GOD both anointed and glorified.
Therefore, Jesus is not and cannot be Almighty GOD himself; no more than David or Moses!Adam,
Exodus 4:16: “You shall be as God to him.”
Exodus 7:1: “See, I make you God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron shall be your prophet.”Both are statements that Moses is the representative of God to Aaron and Pharaoh. They are not statements that he is God. Jesus is called God without qualification because He is God.
You believe that Jesus is just a man and not God, right? Well I agree that Jesus is a man. That's why he's a servant. He's inferior to the Father with respect to his manhood, but equal to the Father with respect to His Godhead. Scripture is clear on both points. John 5:18. Philippians 2:6-8.
Tim
Hi Tim2,
You differentiate Christ into two forms.
One subservient form and one equal form.
In these two forms he has a different attitude to God Himself.
scripture rather shows that he is the same yesterday today and forever.
Again his attitude described in Phil 2 is consistent and precedes his coming as a servant.AP
Of course he was a servant.
Phil. 2
He was the Word/God who took on the form of a servant and was found in fashion as a man and humbled himself to the Father even unto the death of the cross.
He was the One to come, spoken of in Zech 14…
The Name LORD, YHWH is the name for God. But a close examination of the use of this name in OT scriptures shows that the name is applied to both the Father and the Son
Just one example…
Zech 14:
1 Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, and thy spoil shall be divided in the midst of thee.
2 For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city.
3 Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
4 And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south.
5 And ye shall flee to the valley of the mountains; for the valley of the mountains shall reach unto Azal: yea, ye shall flee, like as ye fled from before the earthquake in the days of Uzziah king of Judah: *and the LORD my God shall come, and all the saints with thee*.
6 And it shall come to pass in that day, that the light shall not be clear, nor dark:
7 But it shall be one day which shall be known to the LORD, not day, nor night: but it shall come to pass, that at evening time it shall be light.
8 And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be.
9 And the LORD shall be *king over all the earth*: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one.If you notice the first and second verse seems to be the Father speaking, then in vrs 3 he says “Then the Lord, (YHWH)” as if he is speaking of another and a closer look shows he is speaking of Yeshua.
“And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives”, without question this is Yeshua.
Now if the writer was just meaning Jesus is his agent, he wouldnt have used “His feet”, then in verse 5 he says, “and *the LORD(YHWH) my God* shall come, and all the saints with thee”.
See Mk 8:38 and Matt 25:31 and Rev 1:7 and Jud 1:14. The scriptures show Jesus coming with the Holy Angels and his saints.
Then in verse 9 he says…
And the LORD,(YHWH) shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his *name one*
Notice there is *One Lord* his name is one.
Who is this that has a name above all names and is the King of Kings and Lord of Lords and will rule in his Kingdom?
His name is Yeshua which means “YHWH” is salvation!
Jesus said *My Kingdom* is not of this world!
Now couple this with 1 Tim 3:16 and Jn 1:1 and Jn 1:14 and Jn 20:28 and Acts 20:28 and Phil 2 and Hebrews 1:8 and 1 Pet 1:1 and you have a full understanding of “ALL” scriptures concerning him, who is “the Lord from heaven”.
1 Cor 15:47
The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the *Lord from heaven*.His Glory as God he will not share with another.
Hi W,
You say
“His Glory as God he will not share with another.”Is this the glory as the monogenes Son John spoke of?
John 1:14
“And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.”He wanted the disciples to see that glory.
John 2:11
“This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him.”John 17:24
“Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world.”and he even SHARED IT with them
John 17:22
“And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:”So do you think he had two glories, one as God and one as Son of God.
It is so confusing
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