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- September 5, 2009 at 6:43 am#144454davidParticipant
Quote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,18:31) Quote Please David, don't tell us that you hang your doctrine on Moses being “a god” to Pharaoh! Please tell us David that you do not see Moses as Pharaoh saw him! Again, my question which you've managed to ignore for about 13 pages:
HOW did Pharoah see Moses as a god?
What did Pharoah seeing Moses as a god mean?
14 pages later….nothing. Maybe the thinker has some thoughts. Well, he would have to, wouldn't he?September 5, 2009 at 6:45 am#144455Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,02:31) Quote Please David, don't tell us that you hang your doctrine on Moses being “a god” to Pharaoh! Please tell us David that you do not see Moses as Pharaoh saw him! Again, my question which you've managed to ignore for about 13 pages:
HOW did Pharoah see Moses as a god?
What did Pharoah seeing Moses as a god mean?
DavidI am convinced that you hear what you want to hear.
I have said before that Moses was made a God to Pharaoh because Pharaoh believed in many gods.
They practiced the worship of many gods. So when Moses comes in the name of the “I AM” and shows many plagues which Moses claimed as being from the “I Am” Pharaoh percieved that Moses was “a god” because his blind heart didn't believe in the “I Am”.
You have failed to give me an example of YHWH calling any “Angel of God” or man of God, God!
You and t8 say that scriptures show that Angels of God are called God yet where are the examples of this?
Why do you avoid this David? There has to be at least one scripture somewhere that an Angel of God, or a Prophet of God is called God by God!
WJ
September 5, 2009 at 6:51 am#144456davidParticipant“Moses was NOT a false god.”–david (p 15)
“What does “I have made thee a god to Pharaoh” mean?”–david (p 15)“It means that to Pharaoh he was “a god” because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (p 16)
“Was Moses a false god?”–david (p 16)
“Neither, because Moses was not a god at all!–WJ (p 16)
[That’s odd, because the Bible says ‘Jehovah made him God to Pharoah.’ Saying Moses was “not a god at all” is kind of like saying ‘Jehovah didn’t make him god to Pharoah.’ I think what you meant to say was: He was not the Almighty God. But in some sense, he was “a god to Pharoah.” That is what it says.]
“Maybe you can give us a scripture where Moses followers like Joshua and Aaron ever referred to Moses as a God, or maybe there is another scripture that says Moses was “a god” somewhere in the OT!”–WJ (p 16)
[Also, true, Moses followers like Joshua and Aaron never referred to Moses as God. Interestingly, Moses did serve as “God” or “a god” to Aaron as well. (Ex 4:16) So, yes to your Aaron question and also yes to your last question. But anyway, it doesn’t matter, that we can’t find references of many people calling Moses God. How many people called Jesus God? Like 3 or 4 out of the thousands of characters in the Bible? Yet, that doesn’t matter to you.]
“Moses was not a God at all, unless you believe like Pharaoh a Polytheist that there are many gods!”–WJ (p 16)
“because Moses was not a God at all!
Where is the scriptures or scripture David that Moses is called God in the OT.
Where is the reference that shows Joshua or Aaron or anyone calling him God!
No, Moses was “a god” to Pharaoh because he was a Polytheist, and nothing more!–WJ (p 16)“He was a god (mighty one) to Pharoah, or at least, that's what scripture says.”–david (p 16)
“Are you suggesting that Pharoah was a polytheist who worshipped Moses? Is that how you think Moses was a god to Pharoah?”–david (p 17)
“No, I am sugesting that Pharaoh acknowledged that Moses was some sort of “a god” who he may or may not have worshipped.”–WJ (p 17)
“EXODUS 7:1
“Consequently Jehovah said to Moses: “See, I have made you God to Phar?aoh, and Aaron your own brother will become your prophet.”
“I [Jehovah] have made you [Moses] god to Pharoah.”
It was Jehovah who made Moses a god to Pharoah.
Are you suggesting that Jehovah wanted Pharoah to worship Moses?
Or, is my explanatin better: That the word “god” means “mighty one” and that Jehovah gave Moses power over Pharoah?”–david (p 17)“No, I am saying it doesn't make any difference, because in believing in other gods he was a Polytheist, and YHWH said that he (Moses) would be a god “to Pharaoh”, not that he was “a god”!
How clear is it David. Where is the example of Moses being called “a god” by his followers like Joshua or Aaron?”–WJ (p 17)“Who said there had to be other examples? Where are the examples of Abraham [insert a hundred other names] calling Jesus a God? How about that? So please stop asking that silly question.–david (p 17)
Did Pharoah worship Moses?
Is that why he was called a god to Pharoah?”–david (p 18)“The answer to your question is in my statement!
“May or may not have worshipped”
The scriptures do not tell us do they. They simply tell us that YHWH said he would make Moses “A god to Pharaoh”, not to the Hebrews or anyone else because there are no other gods, yet to Pharaoh there was.”–WJ (p 18)“I know you said “may” have.
BUT, IF PHAROAH did not “worship” Moses, then guess what? That whole thing about “worship” having to be connected to the idea of the word “god” is thrown out the window, as it should be.
The truth is, the word “god” does not have to involve worship. It often does, because 99.9% of the time, the word “god” is used with reference to the Almighty God who is rightfully to be worshiped.
But, we see here, that in this case, and others, (where Jehovah makes Moses a god to Pharoah) that the word “god” does not have to mean “someone who is worshiped.” (You yourself suggest this, in saying it may or may not involve worship.)
In fact, it doesn't mean that at all. It usually does refer to Jehovah who is to be worshiped, but the word “god” simply means “mighty one.” That idea fits ALL the scriptures where “god” is used.
MY QUESTION TO YOU, AGAIN, which you are trying your very hardest to avoid, (and understandably) is, what does your statement above, in effect mean?
It CAN'T mean that Moses was worshiped by Pharoah BECAUSE it was God who MADE Moses a god to Pharoah.
So, this is why I keep asking you. You say it “maybe” means that. And then when I point out it can't logically mean that (unless you think Jehovah wanted Moses to be worshiped by a pagan ruler), you go back to your “maybe.”
Well, my question to you then is: How would that be possible? You think that maybe Jehovah wanted Moses to be worshipped? (That is what you think “god” means, isn't it?) So is that what you think, that Jehovah wanted Moses to be worshiped by Pharoah?
–We know Moses wasn't a false god, right? (For it was Jehovah that “made” him a God to Pharoah.)
–And here, you suggest “maybe” Jehovah made him a god to Pharoah meaning, “worshiped” by Pharoah.
I think we're beginning to build enough evidence that Moses is part of the trinity.
Or, perhaps, the other explanation: “god” means “mighty one.”–david (p 19)“I have said before that Moses was made a God to Pharaoh because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (Page 35)
***************************
–So, we know Moses wasn't a “false god” right?
–Jehovah made him a god to Pharoah.
———————————————-What does that mean? (Not “why did Pharoah think Moses was a god”)
Does it mean Jehovah made Pharoah worship him? (We've established now, that the word “god” does not necessarily involve “worship.”)
Or does it mean that Jehovah made him a “mighty one” in comparison to Pharoah?September 5, 2009 at 6:55 am#144457Not3in1ParticipantHello again,
Quote Jesus is not in the flesh any longer, he emptied himself and came in the likeness of sinful flesh and was found in fashion as a man! Phil 2 He is exalted now.
Indeed! Exalted! So he was honored with the name above every name. Jesus didn't tell us that he was going to become the all-powerful one once he was raised. Instead he came to his disciples and showed them his scars, and ate with them. The power that Jesus has now is temporary, for only ONE can be all in all. It will be Jesus' pleasure to turn everything over to his dad once death is conquered.Quote Jesus didn't do anything on his “own initiative” but said that he did what he saw the Father do! So when Jesus raised the dead, it was “Jesus” who raised the dead because he saw the Father doing the same thing!
While still in the flesh, Jesus raised the dead through the power of the Father (again, while in the flesh Jesus told us he could do nothing if it weren't for the Father.). So we know that when Jesus raised the dead, when Peter raised the dead….it was because of the power given them from the Father. Right?Quote Jesus gave them this answer: “I tell you the truth, “the Son can do nothing **by himself**; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, “because whatever (equality) the Father does **the Son also does**. John 5:19
Keith, a son will always imitate his father. That doesn't mean the son is equal to the father in power.And again, I think you hilight in the wrong place. The hilighted area should be, “……he can only do what he sees…..”. There is NO EQUALITY there! In fact, I see only limitation.
Quote The fact that Jesus said he could do what the Father does shows his equality with the Father!
I don't believe so, not at all.My daughter sees me do a lot of things in the garden. She follows me and plants what I plant. She sees me grab the hose, and she also takes another hose, she watches me check for time of harvest, and when I begin to harvest she knows it's time for her to help harvest.
BUT (and this is a big but), my daughter doesn't know how to do these things on her own. She only knows how to do them because she has watched me!!!! Therefore, she cannot be an equal gardener. For there are so many things about gardening that she still does not know and will not learn until next season……or until I share them with her and show her how.
Love,
MandySeptember 5, 2009 at 6:58 am#144458davidParticipantQuote I am convinced that you hear what you want to hear. I have said before that Moses was made a God to Pharaoh because Pharaoh believed in many gods.
That's your answer WJ?
Jehovah made Moses a god to Pharoah “because Pharoah believed in many gods.”
How does that even make sense? And many people believe in many gods, but Jehovah doesn't make someone a god to them.
Quote Pharaoh percieved that Moses was “a god” because his blind heart didn't believe in the “I Am”.
OK, Pharoah perceived it, or more scripturally, “Jehovah MADE Moses” a god to Pharoah.Quote You have failed to give me an example of YHWH calling any “Angel of God” or man of God, God!
You want an example of Jehovah calling a man of God…God? The example we are considering now…of Moses.“Jehovah MADE” Moses “God” or “a god” to Pharoah.
What did that mean? You think it means “”because Pharoah believed in many gods.”?
WAIT? You answered some “why” question.
I'm asking you “WHAT” it means?
September 5, 2009 at 7:01 am#144459Not3in1ParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,18:36) Quote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,02:30) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,12:03) If he is not at this time subject to the Father then he is equal to the Father. I know this is so hard for the Arians to accept, for it is like a bitter pill.
Keith,What makes you think that Jesus isn't subject to the Father? Didn't the scripture make clear that the Father was not under the Son, but that he put everything/everyone else under him? The Father is excluded from Jesus' current “power” arrangement.
I'm sorry, bro, but that doesn't sound like Jesus is in ANY WAY equal to the Father.
Jesus is standing-in, if you will. He is 'acting' judge (for now).
I do not think of Jesus as a puppet. He is the Son of the Almighty – that's serious stuff!
The bitter pill is for all of us to swallow because these and other topics have been debated to death. Why? Because the bible can be interpreted a thousand ways to Sunday (or Saturday, whichever your brand of Christianity prefers).
I see how you arrive at your understanding. I just don't see it the same way. Thanks, anyway.
Still love you,
Mandy
Hi MandyFor he “has put everything under his feet.”* Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ When he has done this, “**then** the Son himself will be made subject to him” who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.. 1 Cor 15:27, 27
If Jesus is subject now then why would he later be subject when all things are put under his “Jesus” feet?
WJ
Who is “God” in this passage?September 5, 2009 at 7:05 am#144460davidParticipant“What does “I have made thee a god to Pharaoh” mean?”–david (p 15)
“It means that to Pharaoh he [Moses] was “a god” because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (p 16)
“I have said before that Moses was made a God to Pharaoh because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (Page 35)
I now see that you did answer it before on page 16. Or at least, you answered something. The reason I kept asking it and the reason you might seem frustrated is because you are answering something, but it is not my question.
WHAT does it mean–Moses being made a god to Pharoah? In what sense was he a god to Pharoah?
The question IS NOT “why would Pharoah believe Moses was a god”…
That would be a dumb question, because we are told that “Jehovah MADE Moses” a god to Pharoah.You seem to be answering why Pharoah would accept that Moses was a god to him. I'm asking what it meant.
September 5, 2009 at 7:05 am#144461Worshipping JesusParticipantHi David
Quote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,02:51) –So, we know Moses wasn't a “false god” right?
–Jehovah made him a god to Pharoah.
———————————————-What does that mean?
Does it mean Jehovah made Pharoah worship him? (We've established now, that the word “god” does not necessarily involve “worship.”)
Or does it mean that Jehovah made him a “mighty one” in comparison to Pharoah?No. Moses was not a god at all. To Pharaoh he was and thats it.
Just like men have made “Idols” or false gods out of men today.
They are not gods at all are they David?
But apparantly you insist on being a Polytheist, and it is because of your Arian faith that cannot see that Jesus is “True God” with a big “G” with all authority and power in his hands!
David, what do you think of YHWHs and Pauls words here…
“Now concerning everything which I have said to you, be on your guard; and “DO NOT MENTION THE NAME OF OTHER GODS, NOR LET THEM BE HEARD FROM YOUR MOUTH. Exod 23:13
So then, about eating food sacrificed to idols: We know that an idol is nothing at all in the world and that “THERE IS NO GOD BUT ONE“. For even if there “ARE SO CALLED GODS”, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”), 1 Cor 8:4, 5
Do you think Moses and Paul believed in other “gods”?
WJ
September 5, 2009 at 7:08 am#144462Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,03:01) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,18:36) Quote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,02:30) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,12:03) If he is not at this time subject to the Father then he is equal to the Father. I know this is so hard for the Arians to accept, for it is like a bitter pill.
Keith,What makes you think that Jesus isn't subject to the Father? Didn't the scripture make clear that the Father was not under the Son, but that he put everything/everyone else under him? The Father is excluded from Jesus' current “power” arrangement.
I'm sorry, bro, but that doesn't sound like Jesus is in ANY WAY equal to the Father.
Jesus is standing-in, if you will. He is 'acting' judge (for now).
I do not think of Jesus as a puppet. He is the Son of the Almighty – that's serious stuff!
The bitter pill is for all of us to swallow because these and other topics have been debated to death. Why? Because the bible can be interpreted a thousand ways to Sunday (or Saturday, whichever your brand of Christianity prefers).
I see how you arrive at your understanding. I just don't see it the same way. Thanks, anyway.
Still love you,
Mandy
Hi MandyFor he “has put everything under his feet.”* Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ When he has done this, “**then** the Son himself will be made subject to him” who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.. 1 Cor 15:27, 27
If Jesus is subject now then why would he later be subject when all things are put under his “Jesus” feet?
WJ
Who is “God” in this passage?
Hi MandyThe Father!
And who is God in this Passage…
while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of “our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ“, Titus 2:13
Jesus is the one with it all at this time and he is the God of this age and forever more for all those who believe the scriptures!
WJ
September 5, 2009 at 7:08 am#144463davidParticipantQuote “It means that to Pharaoh he [Moses] was “a god” because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (p 16) “I have said before that Moses was made a God to Pharaoh because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (Page 35)
Actually, I was wrong. Your statements not only don't answer my actual question, but they are also incorrect statements.
Moses was made a god to Pharoah “because” Jehovah wanted him to be godlike to Pharoah (not because “Pharoah believed in many gods.”)
But still, my question is: What does that mean?–to be made a god to Pharoah?
September 5, 2009 at 7:13 am#144465Worshipping JesusParticipantDavid
Quote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,02:58) And many people believe in many gods, but Jehovah doesn't make someone a god to them. Quote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,02:58) OK, Pharoah perceived it, or more scripturally, “Jehovah MADE Moses” a god to Pharoah .
You are not making any sense David!
WJ
September 5, 2009 at 7:21 am#144466Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,03:08) Quote “It means that to Pharaoh he [Moses] was “a god” because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (p 16) “I have said before that Moses was made a God to Pharaoh because Pharaoh believed in many gods.”–WJ (Page 35)
Actually, I was wrong. Your statements not only don't answer my actual question, but they are also incorrect statements.
Moses was made a god to Pharoah “because” Jehovah wanted him to be godlike to Pharoah (not because “Pharoah believed in many gods.”)
But still, my question is: What does that mean?–to be made a god to Pharoah?
DavidIf I do not believe that YHWH is saying Moses is “God” then how can I tell you what it means to be “a god”. I cannot be in Pharoahs heart and see why he falsly believed Moses was a god!
Moses is not a god, for there are no other gods.
If you want a definition of God then look at 66 books about YHWH and Jesus and you will see who and what God is!
I am done with your rabbit trail!
I do not expect you to answer my questions but keep running in circles.
WJ
September 5, 2009 at 7:26 am#144467Not3in1ParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,19:08) Quote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,03:01) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,18:36) Quote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,02:30) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,12:03) If he is not at this time subject to the Father then he is equal to the Father. I know this is so hard for the Arians to accept, for it is like a bitter pill.
Keith,What makes you think that Jesus isn't subject to the Father? Didn't the scripture make clear that the Father was not under the Son, but that he put everything/everyone else under him? The Father is excluded from Jesus' current “power” arrangement.
I'm sorry, bro, but that doesn't sound like Jesus is in ANY WAY equal to the Father.
Jesus is standing-in, if you will. He is 'acting' judge (for now).
I do not think of Jesus as a puppet. He is the Son of the Almighty – that's serious stuff!
The bitter pill is for all of us to swallow because these and other topics have been debated to death. Why? Because the bible can be interpreted a thousand ways to Sunday (or Saturday, whichever your brand of Christianity prefers).
I see how you arrive at your understanding. I just don't see it the same way. Thanks, anyway.
Still love you,
Mandy
Hi MandyFor he “has put everything under his feet.”* Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ When he has done this, “**then** the Son himself will be made subject to him” who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.. 1 Cor 15:27, 27
If Jesus is subject now then why would he later be subject when all things are put under his “Jesus” feet?
WJ
Who is “God” in this passage?
Hi MandyThe Father!
And who is God in this Passage…
while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of “our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ“, Titus 2:13
Jesus is the one with it all at this time and he is the God of this age and forever more for all those who believe the scriptures!
WJ
Exactly! The Father is God.The Titus passage is disputed, you know this. There are a few (or a couple, at least) different versions of this scripture. Therefore, it is no solid ground to stand on, bro.
The whole tenor of the bible points to the Father as being God.
I'm out. Fight on. I find the debate a weak one, to be perfectly honest. The dried ink is clearly flawed in it's present state. We are arguing over air.
True religion is watching after the orphans and the widows. It's loving your neighbor. It's loving God. And God is who? God is the Father.
Sweetdreams,
MandySeptember 5, 2009 at 7:31 am#144468Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,03:26) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,19:08) Quote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,03:01) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,18:36) Quote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,02:30) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,12:03) If he is not at this time subject to the Father then he is equal to the Father. I know this is so hard for the Arians to accept, for it is like a bitter pill.
Keith,What makes you think that Jesus isn't subject to the Father? Didn't the scripture make clear that the Father was not under the Son, but that he put everything/everyone else under him? The Father is excluded from Jesus' current “power” arrangement.
I'm sorry, bro, but that doesn't sound like Jesus is in ANY WAY equal to the Father.
Jesus is standing-in, if you will. He is 'acting' judge (for now).
I do not think of Jesus as a puppet. He is the Son of the Almighty – that's serious stuff!
The bitter pill is for all of us to swallow because these and other topics have been debated to death. Why? Because the bible can be interpreted a thousand ways to Sunday (or Saturday, whichever your brand of Christianity prefers).
I see how you arrive at your understanding. I just don't see it the same way. Thanks, anyway.
Still love you,
Mandy
Hi MandyFor he “has put everything under his feet.”* Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ When he has done this, “**then** the Son himself will be made subject to him” who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.. 1 Cor 15:27, 27
If Jesus is subject now then why would he later be subject when all things are put under his “Jesus” feet?
WJ
Who is “God” in this passage?
Hi MandyThe Father!
And who is God in this Passage…
while we wait for the blessed hope–the glorious appearing of “our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ“, Titus 2:13
Jesus is the one with it all at this time and he is the God of this age and forever more for all those who believe the scriptures!
WJ
Exactly! The Father is God.The Titus passage is disputed, you know this. There are a few (or a couple, at least) different versions of this scripture. Therefore, it is no solid ground to stand on, bro.
The whole tenor of the bible points to the Father as being God.
I'm out. Fight on. I find the debate a weak one, to be perfectly honest. The dried ink is clearly flawed in it's present state. We are arguing over air.
True religion is watching after the orphans and the widows. It's loving your neighbor. It's loving God. And God is who? God is the Father.
Sweetdreams,
Mandy
MandyQuote (Not3in1 @ Sep. 05 2009,03:26)
The Titus passage is disputed, you know this. There are a few (or a couple, at least) different versions of this scripture. Therefore, it is no solid ground to stand on, bro.To you it is disputed. But the GSR and the context is proof that it is unambiguos!
I see I show you scriptures that claim Jesus is God and you cannot accept them? Why am I not surprised?
Good night and Blessings WJ
September 5, 2009 at 7:55 am#144469davidParticipantQuote No. Moses was not a god at all. To Pharaoh he was and thats it. You're doing that thing again where you say one thing and then a second later, contradict it.
Pharoah was not a god “at all.” “To Pharaoh he was…”
Either he was a god in some way or he wasn't. But the bible says “Jehovah made” him a god to Pharoah.
So he was in fact “a god” to Pharoah.
How can you say he wasn't a god at all, when the Bible specifically says he was a god to Pharoah.
Perhaps what you actually mean is, he wasn't a god, according to your idea of what that word means.
Perhaps, it's time to expand your definition of what the word “god” can mean.
Because the Bible is clear: Jehovah made Moses a god to Pharoah.
September 5, 2009 at 8:01 am#144470davidParticipantQuote If you want a definition of God then look at 66 books about YHWH and Jesus and you will see who and what God is! bingo!
That's the point I've been trying to make for 15 pages. YOUR definition of the word “[G]god” is “YHWH and Jesus.”
But, if you've been paying attention, Jehovah made Moses a god to Pharoah.Did Jehovah make Moses a “YHWH and Jesus” to Pharoah?
No.
THE WORD GOD DOES NOT MEAN “YHWH.”
Nor does the words facial tissue mean “kleenex.”
(It can, and almost always does.)
But that is NOT what “facial tissue” means.Nor is “YHWH” what “god/God” means. That word is applied to many who are not God Almighty.
Your definition does not fit. It fits most of the time, but that's only because most of the time, The Father is who it is referring to. (Just like most of the time facial tissue is used, it might be kleenex; or any other genericesed trademark type thing.)
September 5, 2009 at 8:02 am#144471davidParticipantQuote To you it is disputed.
To Mandy, and Me, and millions of others.September 5, 2009 at 8:06 am#144472davidParticipantQuote do not expect you to answer my questions but keep running in circles. ARE YOU SERIOUS?
You haven't been asking me questions. I've been asking you the same question for many many pages. Every now and then, in an effort to sidetrack the conversation, you'll call me a liar, or ask me some unrelated question. But, it IS YOU WHO CAN'T ANSWER THIS ONE QUESTION:
“What” does it mean that Moses was a god to Pharoah?
I asked you “what” and you answered “because….” and you answered 'because' incorrectly.
I assumed you would eventually give up. But I know that question will have to trouble you. Unanswered questions are troubling.
September 5, 2009 at 8:08 am#144473davidParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ Sep. 05 2009,19:13) David Quote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,02:58) And many people believe in many gods, but Jehovah doesn't make someone a god to them. Quote (david @ Sep. 05 2009,02:58) OK, Pharoah perceived it, or more scripturally, “Jehovah MADE Moses” a god to Pharoah .
You are not making any sense David!
WJ
For some time, you have been answering a “what does that mean” question with a “because” (why) answer.THAT doesn't make sense.
September 5, 2009 at 8:13 am#144474davidParticipantQuote “Was Moses a false god?”–david (p 16) “Neither, because Moses was not a god at all!–WJ (p 16)
At one point I asked you if Moses was a false god (since he's not God Almighty).
You said “Moses was not a god at all.” But don't you often say that about false gods–that they are not really gods at all?
As far as I can tell, it seems to me, that it seems (see how I'm protecting myself) that you believe that the word “god” means: “The Father/Creator/YHWH/Jesus”
And, so, that being the case, when it is applied to “false gods” you simply reason that the false gods are not really gods at all, because they are not the Creator.But, the problem arrises when we consider that Moses was a god to Pharoah. (He wasn't a false god, according to what seems to be your idea of “false gods” who are worshiped by pagans.) Nor was he the true God.
So, that leaves us in a sticky place.
We have Moses, angels, Israelite judges, etc being called gods.
It seems your definition is incorrect.
Mine still works in all situations.
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