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you tell me Nick- whats it mean “The Word was God” Ive answered your quesrions, now you answer mine. Im waiting!
I really like this so I wanted to add it again somewhere,
It's like saying this, if you mean Jesus is god because he had supernatural powers, as men denote to gods, then YES Jesus was god. If you mean Jesus is god becasue he is to be honored and revered, like men denote to gods, then yes he is god. If you mean is Jesus the One True God of whom ALL power, wisdom and authority comes from, then NO, he is not THAT God, for we are told clearly THAT God is YHWH, that God is the FATHER!!
We are told not to have any other gods before God, speaking of YHWH. We are not to put Jesus above or equal to YHWH. Why would we, for we know that Jesus did nothing of himself, he had to be given ALL things from YHWH.
Quote (david @ Sep. 01 2009,17:44) Quote Wow was your first sentence a personal attack on my intelligence? You're really doing the work of God there buddy! Rokkaman,
I did not mean to insult your intelligence. I meant that it would hurt your brain the same way a paradox hurts someone's brain. And guess what, you didn't answer it, just as I predicted. You can't answer it. It's unanswerable, (for you) like most paradoxes.
But the reason you can't answer it and the reason it hurts your brain to think about, is that the answer will show and does show and has already shown your obvious error which your brain is unwilling to see.
Quote Question: Was it a mistake of the KJ to include “Jehovah” in this verse?
Or, was it a mistake to exclude it the other 7000 times?You see, in asking this, I've proven that the KJ is either wrong, or the manuscripts that they used were wrong.
And that puts you in a tough position. All you can do is ignore it and hope it fades from your memory.
You also tried to divert and sidetrack.Here is how our conversation went.
You: The KJ translates it this way and the KJ is infallible.
Me: Other Bibles translate it differently.
You: But the KJ translates it this way and the KJ is infallible.
Me: If the KJ is infallible, then did it make a mistake in including “Jehovah” or did it make 7000 mistakes when it excluded that name the other 7000 times?
You: “If we need to run to translation error to avoid the obvious truth, then there is no point in debating this subject using translated bibles…we both need to learn hebrew, and debate based on the original text.”Your last statement of course was a fallacy. It is you who are avoiding the obvious truth, and we have absolute unquestionable PROOF of this: You refused to answer the question that I said would hurt your brain.
Don't you wonder what people will think, because you refused to answer it? So I ask it again:
Quote If you only believe the KJ and believe everything it says, then what of Ps 83:18. That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth.
Question: Was it a mistake of the KJ to include “Jehovah” in this verse?
Or, was it a mistake to exclude it the other 7000 times?What do you think?
As I said before, I knew you would not answer it. And I'm fairly confident you will not answer it again. For, you cannot.
david
Rokkaman, I'm really wondering how you would answer that question, in bold?
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