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- August 29, 2006 at 9:21 pm#26328NickHassanParticipant
Hi,
From another site
“The word monogenes also appears elsewhere in the New Testament:By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered Isaac as a sacrifice. He who had received the promises was about to sacrifice his one and only [monogenes] son, even though God had said to him, “It is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned.” Abraham reasoned that God could raise the dead, and figuratively speaking, he did receive Isaac back from death.
—Hebrews 11:17-19 (NIV)
This time the NIV does not have a footnote with that only begotten as it does for John 3:16, but it's the same Greek word monogenes. To say Isaac was Abraham’s only-begotten son would make no sense since according to the Bible, Abraham begat Ishmael as well as Isaac. But “one of a kind”, “one and only”, or “unique” would fit because Isaac was special. Abraham's wife, Sarah, was too old to have a child but she nevertheless became pregnant.Dr. James R. White notes,
The key element to remember in deriving the meaning of monogenes is this: it is a compound term, combining monos, meaning only, with a second term. Often it is assumed that the second term is gennasthai/gennao, to give birth, to beget. But note that this family of terms has two nu’s, νν, rather than a single nu, ν, found in monogenes. This indicates that the second term is not gennasthai but gignesthai/ginmai, and the noun form, genos. G. L. Prestige discusses the differences that arise from these two derivations in God in Patristic Thought (London: SPCK, 1952), 37-51, 135-141, 151-156.
Genos means “kind or type”, ginomai is a verb of being. Hence the translations “one of a kind,” “one and only,” “of sole descent.” Some scholars see the -genes element as having a minor impact upon the meaning of the term, and hence see monogenes as a strengthened form of monos, thereby translating it “alone,” “unique,” “incomparable.”
An example of this usage from the LXX is found in Psalm 25:16,
turn to me and be gracious to me,
for I am lonely (monogenes) and afflicted: (NASB) “August 29, 2006 at 11:50 pm#26338malcolm ferrisParticipantUniquely begotten
One of a kind (uniquely begotten)
1 – Firstborn according to the law of inheritance.
GENESIS 21:10
Wherefore she said unto Abraham, Cast out this bondwoman and her son: for the son of this bondwoman shall not be heir with my son, even with Isaac.GALATIANS 4:28-31
Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise.
But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit, even so it is now.
Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman.
So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free.GALATIANS 3:16
Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.
2 – Born of a virgin according to the promise of the word (an impossible birth – or seemingly so)Abraham and Sarah received Isaac from the dead – in other words his loins and her womb were both dead (being of old age)
HEBREWS 11:17-19
By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
Of whom it was said, That in Isaac shall thy seed be called:
Accounting that God was able to raise him up, even from the dead; from whence also he received him in a figure.GENESIS 18:11-12
Now Abraham and Sarah were old and well stricken in age; and it ceased to be with Sarah after the manner of women.
Therefore Sarah laughed within herself, saying, After I am waxed old shall I have pleasure, my lord being old also?
3 – Firstborn from among the dead?…August 30, 2006 at 12:55 am#26344NickHassanParticipantHi Malcolm,
This word is a political football.
It is said to mean
whatever the doctrinal foundation being defended
demands that it would mean.August 30, 2006 at 1:23 am#26347malcolm ferrisParticipantHi Nick
Political football – interesting.
You mean like the word ousos in the Greek
Or the word logos…August 30, 2006 at 7:23 pm#26390Frank4YAHWEHParticipantThat was a great funny Malcolm! Thanks! I needed that!
Nick wanted me to submit something to this thread … so, here goes! Like it has not been said before! Nick seems to have a problem with googling the world!
August 30, 2006 at 7:29 pm#26391NickHassanParticipantThank you,
I too believe in the virgin birth of Jesus.
But this thread is about the meaning of MONOGENESAugust 30, 2006 at 8:06 pm#26396Frank4YAHWEHParticipantWell Nick,
The other thread where you brought up the question about monogenes was about whether Yahshua pre-existed his birth or not.
The article that I just submitted in my previous post makes mention of the Greek word monogenes.
August 30, 2006 at 8:40 pm#26398NickHassanParticipantHi F4Y,
Here is, in part,the except from this article you posted a link to that is relevant.“A) Let's assume Joseph was a genetic ancestor of King David and that he was the genetic father of Yahshua. That would make Yahshua the son of Joseph. Yet, time and time again we are taught that Yahshua is the “Son of God” (Son of Yahweh). How can it be said that he is the Son of Yahweh if Yahweh did not father him?
The superficial answer is that we are not to understand “Son of Yahweh” literally. Spiritually speaking he is the son of Yahweh just as any other believer would be a son of Yahweh. Sounds good, but it is not the whole truth.
First, that would imply the prophets were sons of Yahweh in the same sense that Yahshua is. Yet, consider Mt 21:33-41;
“Hear another parable: There was a certain householder, which planted a vineyard, and hedged it round about, and digged a winepress in it, and built a tower, and let it out to husbandmen, and went into a far country: And when the time of the fruit drew near, he sent his servants to the husbandmen, that they might receive the fruits of it. And the husbandmen took his servants, and beat one, and killed another, and stoned another. Again, he sent other servants more than the first: and they did unto them likewise. But last of all he sent unto them his son, saying, They will reverence my son. But when the husbandmen saw the son, they said among themselves, This is the heir; come, let us kill him, and let us seize on his inheritance. And they caught him, and cast him out of the vineyard, and slew him. When the lord therefore of the vineyard cometh, what will he do unto those husbandmen? They say unto him, He will miserably destroy those wicked men, and will let out his vineyard unto other husbandmen, which shall render him the fruits in their seasons.”
This parable refers to the nation of Israel killing the son (Yahshua). Prior to that, Yahweh (the householder) sent many servants (prophets included) who they also killed. Yet, those servants are not referred to as sons. There was only one son sent. Why? Because the householder (Yahweh) only has one true son (Yahshua).
Second, that simplistic answer does not address why Yahshua is called the “only begotten Son of Yahweh.” (Jn 1:14, 18; 3:16, 18; 1 Jn 4:9). “Only begotten” is from the Greek “monogenes” (Strong's #3439). It is a contraction of #3441 “monos” meaning “remaining, i.e. sole or single; by impl. mere,” and #1096 “ginomai” meaning “to cause to be (“gen”-erate), i.e. (reflex) to become (come into being).” In other words, Yahshua is the only being that Yahweh brought into being. However, we know Yahweh brought Adam into being through creation from dust. Therefore, monogenes cannot be understood in that sense. Nor can it be understood in the sense of Yahweh bringing Abel into being through Adam and Eve. Then there would be many sons begotten by Him, not “monos.” Therefore, “monogenes” can only be understood in the sense that Yahshua is the only being that Yahweh directly brought into being in the way that He did (without an earthly father or via creation as Adam was).
“Monogenes” was also used in Luke 7:12; 8:42; and 9:38 referring to a woman's only son, a man's only daughter and a man's only child respectively. It should also be noted that Isaac is called the “monogenes” of Abraham in Heb 11:17. This is a reference to Gen 22:2 which says;
“And he said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of.”
“Only” is from the Hebrew “yachid” yet, the Septuagint did not use “monogenes” to translate “yachid”, but “agapetos” meaning “beloved.” “Agapetos” was no doubt chosen because Isaac had a half-brother (Ishmael).
Some will say “only begotten” refers to Yahshua being begotten at his resurrection. This is based on Ps 2:7 and Acts 13:33;
“I will declare the decree: Yahweh hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.”
“God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Yahshua again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.”
While this is true in a spiritual sense, it has a literal application as well. In Jn 3:16, 18, before his resurrection, Yahshua said he was the only begotten Son of Yahweh.
Having established that, how can Yahshua be Yahweh's only begotten Son if he was just like any other man that has ever been begotten by an earthly father? Can it be said that Moses or Paul were Yahweh's only begotten Sons?
Additionally, there are several problematic verses that prove Yahshua could not be fathered by a man.
In Jn 6:31-71, Yahshua taught the people that he was the true bread that “came down from heaven.” (Jn 6:33,38,41,42,50,51,58). After he taught them, he perceived his disciples murmured at his hard sayings. He then said to them, “What and if you should see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?” (Jn 6:62).
How can Yahshua declare he came down from heaven if he was merely born of Joseph? How can he imply he would ascend back to heaven where he originally came down from? Was there ever a time between his birth and this account in John where he ascended into heaven? If not, that proves he had to have a heavenly origin, not an origin from Joseph.
Consider also Jn 3:13;
” And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.”
And 1 Cor 15:47;
“The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Master from heaven.”
Other problematic verses are Jn 16:27,28,30; 17:8.
“For the Father himself loveth you, because ye have loved me, and have believed that I came out from God. I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father. . . Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest forth from God.” (KJV)
“For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.”
The phrases “came out” and “came forth” are from the same Greek word, “exerchomai,” meaning “to issue” (Strong's #1831). It comes from two root words. The first is #1537, “ek” or “ex,” “a primary preposition denoting origin (the point whence action or motion proceeds), from, out (of place, time, or cause; literal or figurative; direct or remote).” The second is 2064, ” erchomai.” Thayer's definition is;
1) to come
1a) of persons
1a1) to come from one place to another, and used both of persons arriving and of those returning
1a2) to appear, make one's appearance, come before the public
2) metaph.2a) to come into being, arise, come forth, show itself, find place or influence
2b) be established, become known, to come (fall) into or unto
3) to go, to follow oneI have tried to understand these problematic verses as they would apply to Joseph as Yahshua's genetic father to no avail. There can only be one conclusion, Yahshua did not have two earthly parents. Since Miriam was undoubtedly human, the other had to exist in heaven from which the Messiah issued out of and came down from.
One other problematic verse is Mic 5:2;
” But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.”
“Goings forth” is from the Hebrew “mowtsa'ah. Strong's says the word means “a family descent.” In other words, lineage. BDB says the word means “origin” or “places of going out to or from.”
If Yahshua was born of Joseph, then his family descent, lineage, or origin
can be traced no further back than Adam. Yet, Mic 5:2 says his “family descent” is “from of old, from everlasting.” This can only be true if Yahshua came into being by Yahweh who has no beginning. Some might argue that “everlasting” (Heb – “olam”) does not necessarily mean forever and ever without end. That may be true in certain circumstances, but not based on the context of this prophecy. If “olam” is to be understood as going no further back in lineage than to Adam, then this would be true of all men. Yet, this is a specific, identifying characteristic of the coming Messiah. It must be understood in such a way that it disqualifies most men just as being born in Bethlehem and becoming a ruler in Israel would disqualify most men.”August 31, 2006 at 1:13 pm#27061Frank4YAHWEHParticipantWho is it that is arguing that Yahshua was born of Joseph? Certainly not !!
August 31, 2006 at 9:21 pm#27082NickHassanParticipantHi F4Y,
Who is this son of old?
Prov 30
” 4Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?”September 1, 2006 at 3:02 am#27126NickHassanParticipantHi,
1Jn 4
” 8He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love.9In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.
10Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.”
This scripture shows clearly that MONOGENES does not relate to the conception Of Jesus in Mary.
It relates to his relationship with his Father before he was sent into the world.October 3, 2006 at 9:23 pm#29986NickHassanParticipanttopical
November 8, 2006 at 7:11 am#31916NickHassanParticipantThis is topical
November 20, 2006 at 8:57 pm#32783NickHassanParticipantThis is topical
November 27, 2006 at 1:07 am#33196NickHassanParticipantHi,
Twice lately posts have spoken of the “only begotten” son and said by way of explanation that “begotten means born”.
“Monogenes” ,
which is the greek word translated as “only begotten”
does just relate to physical birth.A reminder that this is not the case.
Number 3439
Transliteration:
monogenes {mon-og-en-ace'}
Word Origin:
from 3441 and 1096
TDNT:
4:737,606
Part of Speech:
adjective
Usage in the KJV:
only begotten 6, only 2, only child 1Total: 9
Definition:
single of its kind, only
used of only sons or daughters (viewed in relation to their parents)
used of Christ, denotes the only begotten son of GodChrist was the monogenes son who was beloved of God and sent into the world. He came in the flesh. He partook of flesh.
1Jn 4
” 9In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.10Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins. “
Jn 3
” 16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.17For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
18He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God”
December 2, 2006 at 9:21 pm#33537NickHassanParticipantHi,
The Monogenes Son of God was unique and begotten of God alone. If it related to his conception in Mary he would not be just the Son of God but the son of God and Mary.February 12, 2007 at 5:01 am#40109NickHassanParticipanttopical
February 12, 2007 at 8:27 pm#40151NickHassanParticipantHi,
I am sure the true nature of Jesus is hidden in this word and we should be working harder to understand it as it is an important key of knowledge that impacts on so many other areas.February 15, 2007 at 1:29 am#40375NickHassanParticipantHi,
From the abiram site
“Some demand that monogenes means “the only one born,” but that assumption is easily neutralized by rattling off the Sons-of-God list displayed on the left. And if that doesn't help, quoting Hebrews 11:17 usually does the trick. In that verse the same word is used between Abraham and his monogenes son Isaac, the younger brother of Abraham's first born son Ishmael, and proves that monogenes can not mean “only-begotten.”• NT texts containing the word monogenes, and which are not about Jesus:
Luke 7:12
…the only son of his mother…Luke 8:42
…for he [Jairus] had an only daughter…Luke 9:38
…for he is my only boy…Hebr 11:17
…offering up his only begotten son (Isaac)…The solution lies in the second segment of the compound: the word genos, where our words gene and genus come from. It denotes a class or stock, much rather than a simple generation. In the top three cases of the texts displayed to the right, the mentioned children are only children and by being the only one, one easily becomes a class on one's own. But in the latter case (Hebr 11:17) and also in the case of God's sons, it becomes evident that when more than one child is “generated,” there may be one among them who again forms a totally new sub-class. Such is the case with Isaac and also Jesus, the only son of God who is said to be monogenes, and also the only who of whom it was said that He was both fully human and fully God, and that He lived on earth and in heaven simultaniously. Was he both? Both ordinary human and ordinary God?
When scientists were trying to understand the essence of light (to which Jesus compares Himself) they did some tests to reveal whether light was waves or particles. Much to their dismay, some tests proved beyond the shadow of a doubt that light was waves, while other tests proved beyond the shadow of a doubt that light was particles. Battles were waged and many spent their breath trying to convince others of something that didn't exist. Light was both particle and wave, and that's why it was neither; it was a completely new class and comparable to nothing. On top of that, it was discovered that light always travels with the same speed; you can't slow it down or make it hurry. And if that wasn't weird enough, it appeared that at that light speed, all distances became zero and time froze to a stand still. That means that at light speed, there are no meters and no second and certainly no meters-per-second and the speed of light is not a speed! In fact, if we define space as that place where all things that have a size live, and time as that process that makes sure that not everything happens at once, than we can say that light sits on the edge of spacetime and is both part of it and not!
Then when we realize that light consists of photons, which are the units of energy and everything that exists in spacetime comes from energy, and also that atoms are held together into objects and planets and stars by photons, the following texts may help understand the reader why Jesus is so very monogenes:
John 8:12
I [Jesus] am the Light of the world…Col 1:16, 17
For by Him all things were created, […]. All things have been created by (or: through) Him and for Him. And He is before all things and in Him all things hold together.So does MONOGENES mean UNIQUE CLASS OF BEING?
March 7, 2007 at 9:27 pm#43971NickHassanParticipanttopical
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