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The Name Yahweh
The name Yahweh (or Jehovah) appears nearly 7,000 times in the Old Testament. Most English
translations render the Hebrew name for God as LORD, while some (like the New Jerusalem Bible and
Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible) use “Yahweh” and others (like the American Standard Version of
1901 and the New World Translation) use “Jehovah.” But, between Malachi and Matthew the Name
suddenly disappears! There are over 5,000 Greek manuscripts of the New Testament, and not one of
them has the Name in either Greek or Hebrew letters. The Watchtower Society claims that the Name
was there in the original Greek New Testament, but that it was later removed. They claim this with no
real evidence, for they are unable to produce even one manuscript of the Greek New Testament with
the Name! Besides, some of those manuscripts of the New Testament date from within one
generation of the original writings. That leaves very little chance for the Society’s theory of a
conspiracy to remove the Name from the New Testament text. If we accept the facts the way they are
(without trying to change them to fit a preconceived theory) we are forced to admit the Name is not in
the New Testament.The Name Jesus
In the New Testament we meet up with another name. The name that is emphasized in the New
Testament is the name of Jesus. (This makes for an interesting comparison in the New World
Translation. While the Watchtower Society “restores” the name Jehovah 237 times to the New
Testament, their Comprehensive Concordance lists the name Jesus over 900 times!) In the book of
Acts we particularly notice the emphasis of the name of Jesus. If you have an exhaustive
concordance look up the word “name” in the book of Acts. Over and over again you will see the
Name the early Christian church emphasized was the name of Jesus! At Acts 3:6 Peter healed the
lame beggar in the name of Jesus Christ. In Acts 4:7,10,12,17,18 we read about the first disciples
defending themselves before the Sanhedrin, proclaiming their use of the name of Jesus. In Chapter
5 they are back before the Jewish high court. For whose name did they suffer? Acts 5:41 tells us:
“These, therefore, went their way from before the Sanhedrin, rejoicing because they had been
counted worthy to be dishonored In behalf of his name.” They suffered for the name of Jesus! Space
does not permit us to look at all the relevant verses. Take time to consider these few: Acts 8:12; 9:13-
16, 27, 28; 15:26; 16:18; 19:17; 21:13; 26:9. In Acts the Name that is emphasized is the name of Jesus
Christ!Why the change of emphasis between the Old Testament Yahweh and the New Testament Jesus? Are
we being introduced to some rival deity in the New Testament when we encounter so much emphasis
on the name of Jesus? That is the way some nearly react when it is suggested that the answer lies in
the fact that the N.T. identifies Jesus with Yahweh. Bear in mind that I am not saying Jesus is the
Father! Rather, what I am saying is that Jesus and the Father share the same Name and are not in
some sort of competition.Is Jesus Really Jehovah?
Charles Taze Russell, the first President of the Watchtower Society, was firm in his belief that the
name Jehovah could not be applied to Jesus. He is quoted with apparent approval on page 22 of the
Society’s official history book Jehovah’s Witnesses in the Divine Purpose (published in 1959):“We confidently assert that the name Jehovah is never applied in Scripture to any but the Father. It is
for those who claim the reverse to give a text, and show its applicability to Jesus or anyone else than
the Father. Here is a way to prove the matter conclusively-the New Testament writers quote much
from the Old Testament; do they ever quote a passage in which the word Jehovah occurs and apply it
to Jesus? We claim that they do not.” -Quoted from pages 2,3 of the August 1882 issue of Zion’s
Watch Tower. [Note: In recent years the Society has backed down from this position.]Contrast what Russell wrote with this statement from a contemporary of his – J. Gresham Machen, a
Professor at Princeton. He wrote in the book Christianity and Liberalism (1923):“It is a matter of small consequence whether Paul ever applies to Jesus the Greek word which is
translated ‘God’ in the English Bible; certainly it is very difficult, in view of Rom. ix. 5, to deny that he
does. However that may be, the term ‘Lord,’ which is Paul’s regular designation of Jesus, is really just
as much a designation of deity as is the term ‘God.’ It was a designation of deity even in the pagan
religions with which Paul’s converts were familiar; and (what is far more important) in the Greek
translation of the Old Testament which was current in Paul’s day and was used by the Apostle himself,
the term was used to translate the ‘Jahwe’ of the Hebrew text. And Paul does not hesitate to apply to
Jesus stupendous passages in the Greek Old Testament where the term Lord thus designates the
God of Israel.”-page 97. [Note: for those interested in whether the term “God” is applied to Jesus in
the N.T., see our information sheets dealing with Titus 2:13/2 Peter 1:1; John 1:1; and Colossians 2:9.]Let’s consider a few quotations from the Old Testament and see if the New Testament writers had any
problem in applying passages containing the name Yahweh to Jesus. We will use the New World
Translation for these comparisons.The apostle Paul quoted Psalm 68:18 and applied it to the Ascension of Jesus Christ. Psalm 68:18
says: “You have ascended on high; you have carried away captives; you have taken gifts in the form
of men, Yes, even the stubborn ones, to reside among them, O Jah God.” (“Jah” is an abbreviated
form of the name Jehovah.) Notice how Paul applies this passage at Ephesians 4:7-10: “Now to each
one of us undeserved kindness was given according to how the Christ measured out the free gift.
Wherefore he says: ‘When he ascended on high he carried away captives; he gave gifts in men.’ Now
the expression ‘he ascended,’ what does it mean but that he also descended into the lower regions,
that is, the earth? The very one that descended is also the one that ascended far above all the
heavens, that he might give fulness to all things.”Hebrews 1:10-12 quotes the Greek Septuagint version of Psalm 102:25-27 and applies it to Christ:
“You at the beginning, O Lord, laid the foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are the works
of your hands. They themselves will perish, but you yourself are to remain continually; and just like an
outer garment they will grow old, and you will wrap them up just as a cloak, as an outer garment; and
they will be changed, but you are the same, and your years will never run out.” Not only do we here
see a New Testament writer apply an Old Testament passage about Yahweh to Jesus Christ – notice
to what lengths this New Testament writer will go in his scripture application. He openly identifies
Christ as the Creator of heaven and earth. And he contrasts the impermanence of creation against its
Creator, who is unchangeable and eternal. Does it make sense to think the writer of Hebrews felt
Christ was only a creature after seeing how he applies Scripture?Notice this comparison between 1 Peter 3:14,15 and Isaiah 8:12,13. 1 Peter says: “But even if you
should suffer for the sake of righteousness, you are happy. However, the object of their fear do not
you fear, neither become agitated. But sanctify the Christ as Lord in your hearts, always ready to
make a defense before everyone that demands of you a reason for the hope in you, but doing so
together with a mild temper and deep respect.” Now, Isaiah says: “‘You men must not say, “A
co
nspiracy!” respecting all that of which this people keep saying, “A conspiracy!” and the object of
their fear you men must not fear, nor must you tremble at it. Jehovah of armies – he is the One whom
you should treat as holy, and he should be the object of your fear, and he should be the One causing
you to tremble.’” This comparison is even more striking if one compares the Greek word order of 1
Peter with the Greek Septuagint of Isaiah. The Hebrew says: “Sanctify Jehovah of hosts” (according
to Jay Green’s The Interlinear Hebrew-Greek-English Bible) but the Greek Septuagint has “Sanctify ye
the Lord himself.” (From Brenton’s translation of the Septuagint.) Now, Peter, writing in Greek, would
most naturally quote from the standard Greek translation of the OT. – the Septuagint. The Septuagint
here says: kurion auton hagiasate (Greek word order: “Lord himself sanctify”). Peter’s quotation in 1
Peter 3:14,15 is practically identical except here he exchanges the word auton(himself) for who is
Christ. Peter writes: kurion de ton christon hagiasate (Greek word order: “Lord but the Christ
sanctify” – compare the Watchtower Society’s Kingdom Interlinear Translation.) It is as if Peter were
adding a parenthetical thought to his quotation from Isaiah: “The object of their fear do not you fear,
neither become agitated. The Lord (who is Christ) you should sanctify. . .“ Peter was making sure we
knew that the Lord we are to sanctify is Christ!Notice this prophecy from Isaiah 40:3-5: “Listen! Someone is calling out in the wilderness: ‘Clear up
the way of Jehovah, you people! Make the highway for our God through the desert plain straight. Let
every valley be raised up, and every mountain and hill be made low. And the knobby ground must
become level land, and the rugged ground a valley plain. And the glory of Jehovah will certainly be
revealed, and all flesh must see it together. “‘ Matthew 3:1-3, Mark 1:1-4, Luke 3:2-6 and John 1:23
apply this passage to John the Baptist’s preparatory work before the ministry of Jesus.It becomes undeniable that New Testament writers applied Old Testament passages about Yahweh to
Jesus. Can we be sure they were thereby identifying Jesus with Yahweh? Consider this example:
Isaiah 6:1-10: “In the year that King Uzziah died I, however, got to see Jehovah, sitting on a throne
lofty and lifted up, and his skirts were filling the temple. Seraphs were standing above him. . .And this
one called to that one and said: ‘Holy, holy, holy is Jehovah of armies. The fullness of all the earth is
his glory’. . .And I proceeded to say: ‘Woe to me! . for my eyes have seen the King, Jehovah of armies,
himself!’. . .And I began to hear the voice of Jehovah saying: ‘Whom shall I send, and who will go for
us?’ And I proceeded to say: ‘Here I am! Send me.’ And he went on to say: ‘Go, and you must say to
this people, “Hear again and again, O men, but do not understand; and see again and again, but do
not get any knowledge.” Make the heart of this people unreceptive, and make their very ears
unresponsive, and paste their very eyes together, that they may not see with their eyes and with
their ears they may not hear, and that their own heart may not understand and that they may not
actually turn back and get healing for themselves .“‘ Compare this with John 12:36b,37,39-41: “Jesus
spoke these things and went off and hid from them. But although he had performed so many signs
before them, they were not putting faith in him. . .The reason why they were not able to believe is that
Isaiah said: ‘He has blinded their eyes and he has made their hearts hard, that they should not see
with their eyes and get the thought with their hearts and turn around and I should heal them.’ Isaiah
said these things because he saw his glory, and he spoke about him.” If the Apostle John had no
problem saying that Isaiah’s vision of Jehovah in His temple was a vision of Christ’s glory, why should
we? Even the New World Translation Reference Bible cross-references Isaiah 6:1 to John 12:41!We are told at Isaiah 45:22-24: “Turn to me and be saved, all you at the ends of the earth; for I am God,
and there is no one else. By my own self I have sworn – out of my own mouth in righteousness the
word has gone forth, so that it will not return – that to me every knee will bend down, every tongue
will swear, saying, ‘Surely in Jehovah there are full righteousness and strength.”’ Notice how Paul
makes a direct allusion to this passage at Philippians 2:9-11 (NIV): “Therefore God exalted him to the
highest place and gave him the name that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee
should bow, in heaven and on the earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus
Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” At Isaiah 45:23 we were told that every knee would
bend in worship and every tongue swear to Jehovah. Paul alludes to this and says this would happen
“at the name of Jesus.” Why? Because Paul adds that God has shared with Christ “the name that is
above every name” – the Divine Name. So, when every knee bows before Jesus and every tongue
confesses Jesus Christ as LORD, does this detract from the Father? Not at all! Rather, Paul said this
would glorify God the Father! – compare John 5:23. (Interestingly, early editions of the New Testament
part of the New World Translation had a cross-reference at Philippians 2:10 pointing to Isaiah 45:23.
Their 1984 Reference Bible edition has removed that cross-reference.)Consider these points: What was the most sacred Name to the Jews? Didn’t the people of Israel have
an intense awe for the Divine Name? So, how could Paul and Peter and John (who were from a
Jewish background) so freely apply passages about Yahweh to Jesus Christ? Why did they have no
hesitation in identifying Christ with Jehovah? When they called Jesus LORD, weren’t they making a
mind-boggling claim? The risen Savior was identified with Yahweh of the Old Testament! Is that
perhaps one reason why we are told at 1 Corinthians 12:3: “No one can say: ‘Jesus is LORD,’ except
by the Holy Spirit.”Catholicapologist said:
Quote ….Consider these points: What was the most sacred Name to the Jews? Didn’t the people of Israel have
an intense awe for the Divine Name? So, how could Paul and Peter and John (who were from a
Jewish background) so freely apply passages about Yahweh to Jesus Christ? Why did they have no
hesitation in identifying Christ with Jehovah? When they called Jesus LORD, weren’t they making a
mind-boggling claim? The risen Savior was identified with Yahweh of the Old Testament! Is that
perhaps one reason why we are told at 1 Corinthians 12:3: “No one can say: ‘Jesus is LORD,’ except
by the Holy Spirit.”
CA,
I have given some of the references you give and our anti-trinitarian friends here just disobey. The name “Jesus” itself means “Jehovah saves.”Nick said:
Quote Hi CA,
Jesus is the Son of God.
He said so.But you prefer other ideas?
CA,
Nick's reply above is an example of what you say below:Quote Bear in mind that I am not saying Jesus is the
Father! Rather, what I am saying is that Jesus and the Father share the same Name and are not in some sort of competition.
Nick thinks that the name “Son of God' is in competion with “God the Father.” The name “Son” in reference to Jesus is equivalent to the name “God” or “Jehovah” as Hebrews 1:1-10 so plainly says. The Father and the Son are distinct persons but share the divine same names as you say. If the apostles didn't have a problem with it then neither should Nick.thinker
A few interesting passages are:
Matthew 3:3
For this is the one referred to by Isaiah the prophet when he said,” THE VOICE OF ONE CRYING IN THE WILDERNESS,' MAKE READY THE WAY OF THE LORD,MAKE HIS PATHS STRAIGHT!'”Rom 10:
13for “WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED.”These are in the NT but they are OT quotes. The LORD in each is YHVH. Rom 10 is especially interesting because it says that we must call on YHVH to be saved.
Just something to consider.
Jeff
Quote (wisslewj @ Sep. 07 2009,19:34) A few interesting passages are: Matthew 3:3
For this is the one referred to by Isaiah the prophet when he said,” THE VOICE OF ONE CRYING IN THE WILDERNESS,' MAKE READY THE WAY OF THE LORD,MAKE HIS PATHS STRAIGHT!'”Rom 10:
13for “WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED.”These are in the NT but they are OT quotes. The LORD in each is YHVH. Rom 10 is especially interesting because it says that we must call on YHVH to be saved.
Just something to consider.
Jeff
Yes, and Acts 2 says that one must call on the name of the Lord (Jesus) to be saved.thinker
Acts 2
21 then whoever calls on the name of the Lord will be savedThe meaning of this word CAN mean YHVH according to strongs. Given that it is the exact quote from the OT and it never explicitly says it is jesus, it would be just as fair, if not probable, to say it means YHVH here as well. After all the original quote said YHVH.
Given that YHVH is the covenent name FOREVER, I assume we should know it.
Romans 15:11
And again,” PRAISE THE LORD (YHVH) ALL YOU GENTILES,AND LET ALL THE PEOPLES PRAISE HIM.”Even us gentiles are to know it and praise it. Is YHVH jesus? I am not certain at this point.
jeff
Jesus is the son of YHWH.
Jesus built his Church on this truth and the gates of hell will not prevail against it. Yet many try to prevail against it. Their attempts to do is in vain.
Jesus is the son of YHWH and the messiah. He is not the God that he is the son of.
The Trinity doctrine is just a cunning plan to deny in deed that Jesus is the son of God, by saying he is God. When you ask if Jesus is the son of God, Trinitarians say yes because they know that they have to. So they give lip service to him being the son, but in deed they say he is the Most High God.
Quite cunning of the enemy to sow this lie. Even flattery if it is a lie can only reap evil.
Quote (t8 @ Sep. 07 2009,22:02) Jesus is the son of YHWH. Jesus built his Church on this truth and the gates of hell will not prevail against it. Yet many try to prevail against it. Their attempts to do is in vain.
Jesus is the son of YHWH and the messiah. He is not the God that he is the son of.
The Trinity doctrine is just a cunning plan to deny in deed that Jesus is the son of God, by saying he is God. When you ask if Jesus is the son of God, Trinitarians say yes because they know that they have to. So they give lip service to him being the son, but in deed they say he is the Most High God.
Quite cunning of the enemy to sow this lie. Even flattery if it is a lie can only reap evil.
Isaiah 44:6 says that YHWH is the King of Israel and Israel's “goel” (blood relative-redeemer). Who rode into Jerusalem as Israel's King? Where in the new testament does it say that the Father is Israel's King? Where does it say that the Father is Israel's blood relative?YHWH SAID THAT HE WAS ISRAEL'S BLOOD RELATIVE. IT WAS JESUS ALONE WHO WAS ISRAEL'S BLOOD RELATIVE.
thinker
Hi TT,
Indeed a great prophet has arisen. God has visited his people.But God came in His servant Jesus.
Thinker,
that passage has often had me wondering.
Isaiah 44:6
“Thus says the LORD(YHVH), the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD(YHVH) of hosts: 'I am the first and I am the last, And there is no God besides Me.Almost ALL translations have that AND in there. The NIV doesnt. I havent yet lookd at the greek to see if it should be there. But if there are 2 there , they both have the NAME YHVH, just different functions.
But what is interesting about this is that it seems to support what I have been putting forth about the HS. The hosts are the angels. If he is the YHVH of hosts then it is likely that the REDEEMER here speaking is doing so from a spiritual body. That body is likely similar to the angels bodies, or spirits. I would say that its the Holy (set apart) Spirit as we see in Gen 1. (seems to be the ANgel of the LORD as well). Its even debatable if that is Michael but I am not certain.
In any event, clearly he has the name YHVH for whatever that means.
Jeff
Quote (wisslewj @ Sep. 08 2009,02:16) Thinker, that passage has often had me wondering.
Isaiah 44:6
“Thus says the LORD(YHVH), the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD(YHVH) of hosts: 'I am the first and I am the last, And there is no God besides Me.Almost ALL translations have that AND in there. The NIV doesnt. I havent yet lookd at the greek to see if it should be there. But if there are 2 there , they both have the NAME YHVH, just different functions.
But what is interesting about this is that it seems to support what I have been putting forth about the HS. The hosts are the angels. If he is the YHVH of hosts then it is likely that the REDEEMER here speaking is doing so from a spiritual body. That body is likely similar to the angels bodies, or spirits. I would say that its the Holy (set apart) Spirit as we see in Gen 1. (seems to be the ANgel of the LORD as well). Its even debatable if that is Michael but I am not certain.
In any event, clearly he has the name YHVH for whatever that means.
Jeff
If you “check the Greek”, you'll need to grab a LXX since this is the OT. Otherwise you'll need to grab the Hebrew. Its always a good idea to be cautious with the masoretic text since it was compiled between the 7th and 10th centuries AD by Jews who rejected Christ.Quote But what is interesting about this is that it seems to support what I have been putting forth about the HS. The hosts are the angels. If he is the YHVH of hosts then it is likely that the REDEEMER here speaking is doing so from a spiritual body. That body is likely similar to the angels bodies, or spirits. I would say that its the Holy (set apart) Spirit as we see in Gen 1. (seems to be the ANgel of the LORD as well). Its even debatable if that is Michael but I am not certain. So you're proving the real problem with Private Interpretation (which St. Peter told us NOT to practice):
1. At best you are speculating and making an educated guess (are you educated?).
2. At worst you are twisting the text…not good btw.
The bottom line is that you can never be certain. So you are forced to believe that God has consigned you to live in the realm of doubt.
That is…unless…God has given you some other means outside of your fallible self to KNOW the things we have received from God.
Food for thought.
God has!! Praise him!!
He has put his spirit in me that leads me into all truth!! Its a good thing too because if I had to listen to man tell me what to do who knows where we would end up. God has told me his spirit would teach me and his word says that no MAN will have to teach us because we will all be taught by God.
jeff
Quote (wisslewj @ Sep. 08 2009,07:30) God has!! Praise him!! He has put his spirit in me that leads me into all truth!! Its a good thing too because if I had to listen to man tell me what to do who knows where we would end up. God has told me his spirit would teach me and his word says that no MAN will have to teach us because we will all be taught by God.
jeff
If your interpretation of the passages you cite is correct (which it's not), then why doesn't every sincere seeker of Truth end up in agreement?It should be a self-evident, self-verifying statement. Yet, alas it is not.
YOU are fallible. YOU don't get it right 100% of the time.
I'm just curious here. I seriously wonder in ANY OF YOU think that you can hear God perfectly.
I'm waiting.
Hi CA,
Do you sit back and trust in other men to ensure your salvation?
Have you always been so gullible?wake up.
come out of herCA,
notice the Spirit will lead us into all truth and teach us. that means that we may chose not to follow and the process isnt instant.
Are you suggesting that I put my faith in a man? Despite the bible saying that the SPIRIT will be my teacher? I think not. Noone claims infallibility. Noone would have the audacity except maybe the pope. His claims do nothing for me. I will chose to follow what the bible plainly says about the spirit leading me.
Thanks and God bless
JeffHi CA,
Those who put their faith in men are expert purveyors of self doubt as that is why they do what they do.Seek
Ask
KnockQuote (wisslewj @ Sep. 08 2009,09:17) CA, notice the Spirit will lead us into all truth and teach us. that means that we may chose not to follow and the process isnt instant.
Are you suggesting that I put my faith in a man? Despite the bible saying that the SPIRIT will be my teacher? I think not. Noone claims infallibility. Noone would have the audacity except maybe the pope. His claims do nothing for me. I will chose to follow what the bible plainly says about the spirit leading me.
Thanks and God bless
Jeff
Again, I'm talking only talking about sincere seekers. Everyone here can testify that inspite of their own sincerity and that of their neighbor's, disagreement is abundantly found. Did the Holy Spirit fail these people? God forbid. They fail to understand the Scriptures.Quote Are you suggesting that I put my faith in a man? Well, you put your faith in the men whom God used to pen Scripture. You put your faith in the men God used to declare the Canon of Scripture. Why wouldn't you put your faith in these same men as to it's correct interpretation? That doesn't make any sense. If God can use them in the fourth century to infallibly declare the Canon infallibly, He can use them to teach the faithful accurately.
And it makes sense that God would do this. Otherwise, how are we to expect the unity God commands? How can we “say the same thing”?
Quote I will chose to follow what the bible plainly says about the spirit leading me. What you are really saying is that you trust emphatically in YOUR OWN ability to hear from God 100% perfectly. You know in your heart that you don't.
The problem is not with the Holy Spirit. The problem is with your weakness. Deep down your spirit is bearing me witness.
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