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Nothing in the Bible says he is, and nothing says he isn't.
But would he be?
Long before man’s creation, God provided the basis for such measuring of time. Genesis 1:14, 15 tells us that one of the purposes of the “luminaries in the expanse of the heavens” is that they might serve for “seasons and for days and years.” The solar day, the solar year, and the lunar month are thus natural divisions of time.
Why would he be “influenced” by “our” calander, and what is “our” calander. If you happen to be Chinese you may use a western calander and an eastern one or one or the other.
The Hebrews had a calander that differes quite a bit from ours.What I'm saying is that I dont think God thinks to himself: “It's Monday today.”
Or in french, lundi.Notice that Lune means moon in french and “mon” is also similar to that word. (I bring this up because this becomes much more obvious in french: mardi, mecredi, etc) All the days of the weeks are based on various gods which the planets and even the sun are also based on.
If you look at our calander for a second, it is supposed to be based on when Jesus was born. They missed it by a few years when they first made that calculation. So it's off.
God Almighty knows exactly where we are in the stream of time. But is he influenced by our calander?
I'm not sure why he would be.
is a
Just thinking
Titled BC (Before Christ) God or Man ended an age in His name, on behalf of?The raw facts that need to be faced by any unbeliever, that chooses to say he never existed, the reality is God rules, and where… were you back then to prevent, this fantasy of the Christ that became, the history of past, and the beginning of the new calendar to this day
1000, days for God, are a million years for us, So Gods time is the hour of Day, and the hour night, as we have days and night, we are in his day or Night?…. and a time and time and half again until morning
Even endless seasons, are all within one season for God?
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