Colossians 1:19 mistranslated?

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    bodhitharta
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    Quote (Nick Hassan @ July 02 2009,10:58)
    Hi BD,
    No Jesus explained to the Jews who were under the law aspects of their law in response to their questions.

    As you say he was sent to Israel and of course the new covenant was in his blood yet to be poured out.

    But in so doing he was not putting all gentiles and the heathen under the Jewish Law- which you do not submit to.

    Paul spoke to those reborn into Christ and in Romans and Galatians that included recent Jewish converts who felt more secure under the Law and wanted to return to it.


    No , Nick

    You are wrong Jesus taught the Laws of God as they were from the beginning before Laws were given to the Jews

    When Jesus talks about divorce he says what Moses allowed was not so “in the beginning” or before Moses.

    The Laws of God are not “Jewish” they are God's Laws that all mankind was always under. When was it okay for man to lie or break an oath to God, just tell me when?

    When was it okay to murder, just tell me when?

    At what point was God lawless? Just tell me when? You see it is the truth the Devil was a liar from the beginning.

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