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Quote (bodhitharta @ June 20 2009,15:47) Quote (t8 @ June 20 2009,10:57) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 20 2009,05:11) Hi PD Quote (Paladin @ June 19 2009,09:55) Gen 1:1 uses Elohiym with “Bara” – a singular verb, 3rd person masculine singular, which DEMANDS a singular God as the creator. The only way to get a multiple-person creator out of Gen 1:1 is by overwhelming grammar with doctrine. Really! Well it seems to me that you are the one trying to force your rules on the Hebrew grammer. You are claiming that the word Elohiym cannot be plural when refering to YHWH, yet Moses uses the word.
What you are saying is like saying that “ONE” bushel of Apples can only be one apple, or that “ONE” atom can only be singular and not a plural unity, or that “One” number can only be the number one!
Scriptures clearly teach “Plurality in unity” which is in line with all of creation which reveals the Glory of God.
There is nothing in the Universe that is not plural in Unity!
Name it.
Blessings WJ
WJ.There is one God and he sent his son into the world.
The one who sent his son is the Father.
Exactly T8John 15:24-26 (New King James Version)
24 If I had not done among them the works which no one else did, they would have no sin; but now they have seen and also hated both Me and My Father. 25 But this happened that the word might be fulfilled which is written in their law, ‘They hated Me without a cause.’[a]The Coming Rejection
26 “But when the Helper comes, whom I shall send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth who proceeds from the Father, He will testify of Me.(1) And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: “O Children of Israel! I am the apostle of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me, and giving Glad Tidings of an Messenger to come after me, whose name shall be ahmad.” But when he came to them with Clear Signs, they said, “this is evident sorcery!”
( سورة الصف , As-Saff, Chapter #61, Verse #6)
Hi BD:No, the Comforter that Jesus spoke of was not referring to another prophet that was to come after him. This is what Jesus said:
Quote Jhn 14:16 And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; Jhn 14:17 [Even] the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you. If Jesus was speaking of Muhammad when he referred to sending another comforter, how can that be since he said that the comforter was dwelling with them (talking to the disciples), and then he said that the Comforter would be in them. He was speaking of the Holy Spirit, and not another prophet.
Love in Christ,
MartyMarty said:
Quote There is only “ONE” YHWH, but all those who are obeying His Word are partakers of his divine nature, and so when He says “US”, is referring to Himself and those who are obeying His Word. Marty,
Your explanation is not possible. First, men who obey Him did not come down and say, “Let US confuse their languages.” Men did not “come down” with YHWH. Nor did men say, “Let US create man in OUR image.” Are you trying to tell us that God was speaking to obedient men saying, “Let US create man in OUR image?”
Second, YHWH is a plural entity. YHWH is called the King of Israel (Isaiah 44:6). Jesus is the King of Israel. Does Israel have one King or two? Please be definitive in your answer. No more anti-trinitarian double talk like you give above.
Marty said:
Quote Acknoweledging that YHWH does not tell us who “US” is in verse 7 and if it is the angels as I have suggested, it is not evident from the scriptures that he has given us how he used them to confound the language of those building the tower, but this is what I would have to think based on the scriptures that I have already discussed and also because of the following scripture) YHWH has told us who the “US” refers to in 1:26. Elohim said, “Let US make man in OUR image.” Are men created in the image of angels too? And Elohim YHWH punished the man and the woman,
*YHWH Elohim was walking in the garden in the cool of the day (NOT angels)
* Adam and Eve heard the sound of YHWH Elohim walking in the garden (NOT angels too)
*YHWH Elohim confronted the man and the woman about what they had done (angels did NOT confront them)
* YHWH Elohim punished the man, the woman and the serpent (angels do NOT judge)
YHWH Elohim kicked the man and the woman out of the garden,
Quote And YHWH Elohim said, “Behold, the man has become as one of US, to know good and evil….therefore, YHWH Elohim sent him out of the garden You really expect me to believe that angels were included in all of this? This goes for obedient men also. No man could have been included in the “US” because Adam and Eve were the only two humans. Therefore, when YHWH Elohim said “behold, the man has become as one of US” it was a plural YHWH Elohim who spoke.
My Lord bro! You need to be more thorough!
thinker
Quote (thethinker @ June 20 2009,20:32) Marty said: Quote There is only “ONE” YHWH, but all those who are obeying His Word are partakers of his divine nature, and so when He says “US”, is referring to Himself and those who are obeying His Word. Marty,
Your explanation is not possible. First, men who obey Him did not come down and say, “Let US confuse their languages.” Men did not “come down” with YHWH. Nor did men say, “Let US create man in OUR image.” Are you trying to tell us that God was speaking to obedient men saying, “Let US create man in OUR image?” Second, YHWH is a plural entity. YHWH is called the King of Israel (Isaiah 44:6). Jesus is the King of Israel. Does Israel have one King or two? Please be definitive in your answer. No more anti-trinitarian double talk like you give above.
Marty said:
Quote Acknoweledging that YHWH does not tell us who “US” is in verse 7 and if it is the angels as I have suggested, it is not evident from the scriptures that he has given us how he used them to confound the language of those building the tower, but this is what I would have to think based on the scriptures that I have already discussed and also because of the following scripture) YHWH has told us who the “US” refers to in 1:26. Elohim said, “Let US make man in OUR image.” Are men created in the image of angels too? And Elohim YHWH punished the man and the woman,
*YHWH Elohim was walking in the garden in the cool of the day (NOT angels)
* Adam and Eve heard the sound of YHWH Elohim walking in the garden (NOT angels too)
*YHWH Elohim confronted the man and the woman about what they had done (angels did NOT confront them)
* YHWH Elohim punished the man, the woman and the serpent (angels do NOT judge)
YHWH Elohim kicked the man and the woman out of the garden,
Quote And YHWH Elohim said, “Behold, the man has become as one of US, to know good and evil….therefore, YHWH Elohim sent him out of the garden You really expect me to believe that angels were included in all of this? This goes for obedient men also. No man could have been included in the “US” because Adam and Eve were the only two humans. Therefore, when YHWH Elohim said “behold, the man has become as one of US” it was a plural YHWH Elohim who spoke.
My Lord bro! You need to be more thorough!
thinker
Hi thethinker;When Elohim said “let 'US' make man in our image, he had not created man, but the angels did exist at the time of their creation according to Job 38, therefore, I am reasoning that he was speaking to the angels whom you know very well ministered to man in the OT and also minister to men in the NT. I have given you my understanding of this. Frankly, God does not tell us to whom he is referring when He uses the term “US”. And, so if He does not tell us to whom He is speaking, what is your conclusion?
I said that later he used men in the process of making man in His image. The first man Adam was made a living soul. God did this Himself. The last Adam is a spirit of love and that spirit is formed in man through obedience to the Word of God.
God sent angels to minister to men on many occasions, and then he used Noah, and Abraham, and the prophets and Jesus and then he is using “US” in the process of making man in “His” image.I already told you that God uses the plural Elohim because He is the God of gods and the LORD OF Lords. He has exalted Jesus to David's throne as King of the nation of Israel, but the scriptures state that the head of man is Christ, and the head of woman is man, and the head of Christ, is God, and the scriptures state that there is “One God” and Father of all who is above all (including Jesus) and in all born again believers.
I have already stated that YHWH appeared to go by Himself to confound the language of those who were building the tower of babel. If he is not speaking to the angels, I don't have a clue to whom He was speaking, and He does not tell us, and that is as far as I can go without scripture telling me to whom he is referring.
I hope that this is thorough enough for you.
Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (thethinker @ June 19 2009,15:45) Quote (Lightenup @ June 20 2009,01:10) Thinker,
We are told over and over in the New Testament that the Father created everything in heaven and earth through the Son. So, the Father is speaking to the Son. Here we have a conversation between two beings, the Most High GOD speaking to His Son. The Son shared the image of the Father because sons do that when they are true sons, and GOD made us in their image. Later they have another conversation about confusing the language of man. You will see throughout the scriptures that most of the time, Elohim or Yahweh use the singular pronoun. This is not hard.Blessings,
Kathi
Kathi,
We are NOT told over and over again that the Father created all things through the Son. We are told that Father created the ages of human history through the Son (Hebrews 1:2). Then the Father goes on to attribute the physical creation solely to the hands of the Son,Quote You Lord, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth. And the heavens are the work of Your hands (Hebrews 1:19) This was the Father speaking to the Son attributing the creation of the physical universe to the Him. Therefore, it would have been the Son speaking to the Father saying, “Let US make man in OUR image.”
You provided no Scriptures to back up your assertion that the Father created through the Son. The Father attributed the creation of the physical universe to the Son alone saying that it was the work of “YOUR hands.” You are reading into the Scriptures. Paul simply said that all things were created “through” (dia) Christ. The Greek “dia” refers to direct agency. Paul said nothing of creation through the Son by indirect agency. This is your assumption. The Father Himself attributed the creation of the physical universe directly and solely to the Son as I have shown from Hebrews 1:10. Therefore, it would have been the Son who said, “Let US make….”
thinker
Thinker,
I believe it to be possible that the Most High God created by His word by giving the Son direction and the Son carrying out the order by His “hand” so to speak.Similarly that is how the water became wine at the first miracle of the Son while He was a man. That time, the Son gave the word and the servants carried out the order. In creation I think that it is possible for the Father to give the word and the Son to carry out the order.IMO
Kathi
Hi thethinker:
Just thought I would post the following scriptures from the NT relative to angels:
Quote Hbr 1:13 But to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?
Hbr 1:14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation
Hbr 2:1 Therefore we ought to give the more earnest heed to the things which we have heard, lest at any time we should let [them] slip.
Hbr 2:2 For if the word spoken by angels was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (thethinker @ June 19 2009,10:43) To My Anti-trinitarian friends, Please explain the following passages from the KJV.
Genesis 1:26,27: “And ELOHIM said, Let US make man in OUR image….”
Genesis 3:22 : “And YHWH ELOHIM said, Behold, the man has become as one of US, to know good and evil….”
Genesis 11:6-7: “And YHWH said, Behold, the people are one, and they have all one language….Let US go down and confuse their language….”
*In Genesis 1:26 ELOHIM refers to Himself as “US.”
*In Genesis 3:22 YHWH ELOHIM refers to Himself as “US.”
*In Genesis 11:6-7 YHWH refers to Himself as “US.”
Whether it is Elohim, YHWH Elohim, or simply YHWH we see that God is a plural entity. Anyone care to explain?
thinker
thinker My KJV does not say Elohim or YHWH it says God, that makes a difference. God is a tittle and since it says us, it is the Word Or who became Jesus created all, by the power of the LORD. Notice that I said LORD in capital letters. It always is the Almighty God. While when it says Lord it is always Jesus.
You purposely trying to deceive us, that I find not right to do. There is no Trinity. You will not find it in Scriptures. You can look high and low for it.Peace and Love IreneQuote (942767 @ June 21 2009,01:56) Hi thethinker: Just thought I would post the following scriptures from the NT relative to angels:
Quote Hbr 1:13 But to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?
Hbr 1:14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation
Hbr 2:1 Therefore we ought to give the more earnest heed to the things which we have heard, lest at any time we should let [them] slip.
Hbr 2:2 For if the word spoken by angels was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;Love in Christ,
Marty
Marty I know what you are trying to say here, that Jesus is God. Again God is a tittle and both Jesus and the Father have other names. Even so Jesus is the Mighty God, while the Father is the Almighty God. Jesus Himself said that the Father is greater then I, in John 5:19 says this:” Then Jesus said to them, ” Most assuredly, I say to you” the Son can do nothing of himself, but what He sees the Father do, for whatever He does the Son also does in like manner.
John 14:28 says ….for my Father is greater than I.
No Trinity.
Love IreneMarty said:
Quote When Elohim said “let 'US' make man in our image, he had not created man, but the angels did exist at the time of their creation according to Job 38, therefore, I am reasoning that he was speaking to the angels whom you know very well ministered to man in the OT and also minister to men in the NT. Marty,
The new testament says that we are made in the image of God. You are saying that we are made in the image of God and angels.Quote Let US make man in OUR image .
The “US” therefore cannot include the angels.
thinker
Lightenup said:
Quote Thinker,
I believe it to be possible that the Most High God created by His word by giving the Son direction and the Son carrying out the order by His “hand” so to speak.Similarly that is how the water became wine at the first miracle of the Son while He was a man. That time, the Son gave the word and the servants carried out the order. In creation I think that it is possible for the Father to give the word and the Son to carry out the order.IMO
Kathi,
The servants did not change the water into wine. All they did was to fill the water pots with water and then distribute the contents of the pots. The water had been changed into wine by Jesus Himself.thinker
Quote (942767 @ June 21 2009,01:56) Hi thethinker: Just thought I would post the following scriptures from the NT relative to angels:
Quote Hbr 1:13 But to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?
Hbr 1:14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation
Hbr 2:1 Therefore we ought to give the more earnest heed to the things which we have heard, lest at any time we should let [them] slip.
Hbr 2:2 For if the word spoken by angels was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward;Love in Christ,
Marty
Marty,
What's the point you're trying to prove?thinker
Irene said:
Quote Notice that I said LORD in capital letters. It always is the Almighty God. While when it says Lord it is always Jesus. Hi Irene,
You are correct that “Lord” always means Jesus. According to Strong's Concordance the word “Lord” is the name of God (see# 136).
thinker
Hi TT,
You should differentiate the OT books where the Scribes changed YHWH to LORD
from the NT where Jesus is the appointed Lord as 1 Cor 8 shows.The Lord is the Spirit.
No trinityQuote (WorshippingJesus @ June 20 2009,11:16) Quote (Paladin @ June 19 2009,18:24) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 20 2009,05:11) Hi PD Quote (Paladin @ June 19 2009,09:55) Gen 1:1 uses Elohiym with “Bara” – a singular verb, 3rd person masculine singular, which DEMANDS a singular God as the creator. The only way to get a multiple-person creator out of Gen 1:1 is by overwhelming grammar with doctrine. Really! Well it seems to me that you are the one trying to force your rules on the Hebrew grammer. You are claiming that the word Elohiym cannot be plural when refering to YHWH, yet Moses uses the word.
What you are saying is like saying that “ONE” bushel of Apples can only be one apple, or that “ONE” atom can only be singular and not a plural unity, or that “One” number can only be the number one!
Scriptures clearly teach “Plurality in unity” which is in line with all of creation which reveals the Glory of God.
There is nothing in the Universe that is not plural in Unity!
Name it.
Blessings WJ
Quote (Paladin @ June 19 2009,09:55) Gen 1:1 uses Elohiym with “Bara” – a singular verb, 3rd person masculine singular, which DEMANDS a singular God as the creator. The only way to get a multiple-person creator out of Gen 1:1 is by overwhelming grammar with doctrine. (WJ) Really! Well it seems to me that you are the one trying to force your rules on the Hebrew grammer. You are claiming that the word Elohiym cannot be plural when refering to YHWH, yet Moses uses the word.
What happened to scholarship? Did you check the Hebrew grammars? Did you find a fatal flaw in my post?
“I don't think so” is not a rebuttal. Your remarks addressed NONE of my post. And I made no such claim as you suggest.
I said nothing about the word Elohim can't be plural, in fact I pointed out it IS a plural wordform.You will never be able to communicate to me with proper rebuttal because you never accurately report what I say in my posts.
Look up the effect of plural verbs with plural nouns, THEN come back with a proper rebuttal. Stop with the sophomoric
switcheroo by attacking my post on plural nouns and plural verbs with your own argument on the use of echad which was NEVER part of my post on nouns and verbs.I do not intend to continue to post to your arguments until you address the issues raised in my posts.
Hi PDAgain, you said…
Quote (Paladin @ June 19 2009,09:55) Gen 1:1 uses Elohiym with “Bara” – a singular verb, 3rd person masculine singular, which DEMANDS a singular God as the creator. The only way to get a multiple-person creator out of Gen 1:1 is by overwhelming grammar with doctrine. So rant on about me representing you if you like. But my point is that plural unity is in scripture and the very fact that contextually you ignore that YHWH is refered to as us and him as well as man being referred to as him and them shows in my opinion your own bias.
Please give some source for your claims that the plural word Elohyim cannot mean plural when used with the verb “Bara”.
You expect us to believe what you say without showing evidence.
If Moses didnt mean to imply “Pluralality” in the creation he could have used “El” could he not?
WJ
(P) I wish you had responded to our previous concerns about your wife, so we could at least have a civil exchange on a matter dear to the entire board. Maybe I missed it.(WJ)
Quote
So rant on about me representing you if you like.(P) You can't even misrepresent me correctly. I did not rant about your “representing” me. I ranted about your “MIS”- representing me.
(WJ)
Quote
But my point is that plural unity is in scripture…(P) WRONG! “Plural Unity” is not in scripture, it is in DOCTRINE ABOUT scripture. You will not find it in scripture, but you will find plenty about it in BOOKS ABOUT THE SCRIPTURES.
(wj)
Quote
and the very fact that contextually you ignore that YHWH is refered to as us and him as well as man being referred to as him and them shows in my opinion your own bias.(P) How can you continue to berate me for not covering every eventuality about ever conceivable issue, when some berate me for having too long a post? It is not “bias” that keeps me from covering every eventuality in scripture, it is a fact that some complain of my posts being too long. I cannot cover every possible problem area in each post. If you want to raise new issues, do so, but quit accusing me of bias or conveniently avoiding issues.
I have already given you the tools by which you can determine for yourself that “Jehovah” is followed by a singular verb “said,” and evidence that “let us” is including someone NOT an equal. YOU DO YOUR OWN WORK.
(WJ)
Quote
Please give some source for your claims that the plural word Elohyim cannot mean plural when used with the verb “Bara”.You expect us to believe what you say without showing evidence.
I already did. Did you fail to record all those little scripture references on my page? THAT was the “source” for my remarks. Why? Did you find an exception? Do you have a scripture reference to plural deity followed by a singular verb? Or do you have a reference to a singular deity followed by a plural verb? Did you verify it with the Septuagint? If not, why dno? If so, why the questions?
I have given you all the tools necessary for YOU to verify for yourself, the monotheistic God, and eliminate the trinitarian doctrines and creeds. You really SHOULD do SOMETHING for yourself.
Quote (thethinker @ June 20 2009,14:36) Lightenup said: Quote Thinker,
I believe it to be possible that the Most High God created by His word by giving the Son direction and the Son carrying out the order by His “hand” so to speak.Similarly that is how the water became wine at the first miracle of the Son while He was a man. That time, the Son gave the word and the servants carried out the order. In creation I think that it is possible for the Father to give the word and the Son to carry out the order.IMO
Kathi,
The servants did not change the water into wine. All they did was to fill the water pots with water and then distribute the contents of the pots. The water had been changed into wine by Jesus Himself.thinker
Hi Thinker,
I agree that the servants didn't make the water into wine but they assisted with the process…they were given direction from the word of Jesus. I think that it may have been a similar process in creation. The Most High directed with His word and the Holy One of GOD obeyed that word and GOD performed the miracle of the creation. He did it through the work of His Son. Hebrews 1 tells us that it was the Son who laid the foundation of the earth. So we have the word given and the Son obeying and performing the word that was given. IMOKathi
Quote (Lightenup @ June 21 2009,13:05) Quote (thethinker @ June 20 2009,14:36) Lightenup said: Quote Thinker,
I believe it to be possible that the Most High God created by His word by giving the Son direction and the Son carrying out the order by His “hand” so to speak.Similarly that is how the water became wine at the first miracle of the Son while He was a man. That time, the Son gave the word and the servants carried out the order. In creation I think that it is possible for the Father to give the word and the Son to carry out the order.IMO
Kathi,
The servants did not change the water into wine. All they did was to fill the water pots with water and then distribute the contents of the pots. The water had been changed into wine by Jesus Himself.thinker
Hi Thinker,
I agree that the servants didn't make the water into wine but they assisted with the process…they were given direction from the word of Jesus. I think that it may have been a similar process in creation. The Most High directed with His word and the Holy One of GOD obeyed that word and GOD performed the miracle of the creation. He did it through the work of His Son. Hebrews 1 tells us that it was the Son who laid the foundation of the earth. So we have the word given and the Son obeying and performing the word that was given. IMOKathi
Kathi,
It does not compute. Sorrythinker
Paladin said:
Quote “Plural Unity” is not in scripture, it is in DOCTRINE ABOUT scripture. You will not find it in scripture, but you will find plenty about it in BOOKS ABOUT THE SCRIPTURES. Paladin,
You are quite mistaken. Plural unity in general and in reference to God is clearly seen in scripture.1. Plural unity in general:
Moses said,
Quote Therefore, a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall be ONE flesh. (Gen. 2:25) Man and woman are TWO persons constituting ONE entity
Paul said,
Quote For He Himself is our peace, who has made both ONE, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the emnity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himslf ONE new man from the TWO, thus making peace. (Eph. 2:14-15) Jew and Gentile were two races constituting ONE new man.
2. Plural unity in reference to God:
Jesus said,
Quote I am the good shepherd….And other sheep I have which are not of this fold; them also I must bring, and they shall hear My voice; and there shall be ONE flock and ONE shepherd….( John 10:16) YHWH is the Shepherd (Psalm 23:1). Yet Jesus said that He himself is the good Shepherd. Not “a” shepherd but “the” good Shepherd. The two persons constitute ONE shepherd.
thinker
Hi TT,
So you think God is in the image of men for the sake of defending of your doctrine?You seem confused how many persons are in your multiperson God.
Jesus is the son of our God.
Quote (thethinker @ June 21 2009,04:19) Quote (Lightenup @ June 21 2009,13:05) Quote (thethinker @ June 20 2009,14:36) Lightenup said: Quote Thinker,
I believe it to be possible that the Most High God created by His word by giving the Son direction and the Son carrying out the order by His “hand” so to speak.Similarly that is how the water became wine at the first miracle of the Son while He was a man. That time, the Son gave the word and the servants carried out the order. In creation I think that it is possible for the Father to give the word and the Son to carry out the order.IMO
Kathi,
The servants did not change the water into wine. All they did was to fill the water pots with water and then distribute the contents of the pots. The water had been changed into wine by Jesus Himself.thinker
Hi Thinker,
I agree that the servants didn't make the water into wine but they assisted with the process…they were given direction from the word of Jesus. I think that it may have been a similar process in creation. The Most High directed with His word and the Holy One of GOD obeyed that word and GOD performed the miracle of the creation. He did it through the work of His Son. Hebrews 1 tells us that it was the Son who laid the foundation of the earth. So we have the word given and the Son obeying and performing the word that was given. IMOKathi
Kathi,
It does not compute. Sorrythinker
Thinker,
Do you ever give you children or employees a command and they fulfill your command. That is an example of using a word to accomplish something. You participated in the act and your child or employee also participated in the act. It was your direction and their cooperation. It took two parties to complete the task.Regarding turning the water to wine, Jesus gave the command and the servants fulfilled the command and somehow by the power of God the water became wine.
I believe that could have been how it went between the Father and the Son during creation. The Father gave the command, the Son fulfilled the command. The Father gave the direction and the Son cooperated. Both had a part in creation. One part with a word, another part with His hand-which was His Son.
Kathi
Kathi said:
Quote
Thinker,
Do you ever give you children or employees a command and they fulfill your command. That is an example of using a word to accomplish something. You participated in the act and your child or employee also participated in the act. It was your direction and their cooperation. It took two parties to complete the task.Regarding turning the water to wine, Jesus gave the command and the servants fulfilled the command and somehow by the power of God the water became wine.
I believe that could have been how it went between the Father and the Son during creation. The Father gave the command, the Son fulfilled the command. The Father gave the direction and the Son cooperated. Both had a part in creation. One part with a word, another part with His hand-which was His Son.
Kathi,
The major flaw with your theory is that Christ is called the “Word.” Therefore, all the “Let US” decrees in the Genesis narrative would have been spoken by the Word. There was no Father or Son relationship in the Godhead yet.thinker
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