Trinity Debate – 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Subject:  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 disproves the Trinity Doctrine
Date: April 10 2007
Debaterst8  & Is 1: 18


t8

To prove that the Trinity Doctrine is the invention of man and not from scripture, I give 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 as a proof text.

24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.

25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.

26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death.

27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.

28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This piece of text is very interesting because it reveals God’s plan and will. This plan shows us the following:

 

  • At the end of this age, Jesus hands over the Kingdom to God the Father.
  • Before the end, Christ rules until all enemies are under his feet.
  • God puts all under Christ’s feet. All except God (as you would expect).
  • In the end, the son will be subject to God the Father, so that God can dwell in all.

 

The first point I want to talk about is the truth that all is/will be under Christ except God.

So from this text at least, we have a clear explanation as to redemptive plan of God through Christ and in explaining this, it actually says that all will be under his feet except God. So to take the great authority that Christ has to mean that he is God, is obviously incorrect when we read and understand 1 Corinthians 24-28.

The first century was a very different time to now and we should be careful to view their time through todays paradigm. For example, they didn’t have a Trinity doctrine back then and never used the word Trinity in scripture. The absence of such a teaching and usage in the bible is evident because the Trinity doctrine came into existence hundreds of years later.

This is why 1 Corinthians can clearly say that Jesus isn’t God with no hesitation. It doesn’t say that Jesus isn’t God in defense of those who say that he is, it simply says it innocently within a different context because saying that he was actually part of a Trinity God wasn’t an issue in that time.

“Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”

This particular verse points out that God himself put everything under Christ and God is identified earlier in verse 24 as the Father.

Now in these times and in times past the world is and has been drunk on the wine of Babylon and given this influence, I doubt that any Trinitarian in any century could write 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 from his own theology because he would have to write about God as being the Father and not the son.

A Trinitarian who wanted to convey the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and keep his theology intact would most likely say something like:
“….it is clear that this doesn’t include God the Father who put everything under God the son”. 

Even then, a Trinitarian probably wouldn’t write such a text because it would infringe on his version of co-equal.

But sadly for Trinitarians but joyfully for the truth, it says “…it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”.

God and Christ are 2 different identities in these verses, that is clear. It is also clear that God is identified as the Father and when read as such, the text makes perfect sense as you find with hundreds of other scriptures.

If Paul believed in the Trinitarian doctrine as Trinitarians must claim, then Paul must have had a lapse in memory that day, for he clearly talks of God and Christ as two. In fact Paul must have had a very bad memory problem, because he neglected to mention or teach the Trinity in any of his letters. If the Trinity Doctrine was true and a foundational truth that many claim, then we could also say that Paul was quite neglectful for not including it in his writings.

So perhaps it is possible that the Trinity Doctrine wasn’t something that Paul taught or believed at all. Perhaps that doctrine gained prominence when Athanasus and the Emperor Constantine did their works after the time of Paul.

Perhaps it is also possible that Paul knew what he was talking about when he said:

2 Thessalonians 2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 
&
Acts 20:29
29 I know that after I leave, savage wolves will come in among you and will not spare the flock.
30 Even from your own number men will arise and distort the truth in order to draw away disciples after them.
31 So be on your guard! Remember that for three years I never stopped warning each of you night and day with tears.




Is 1:18

1 Corinthians 15:24-28
24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This proof text is, I think, excellent evidence against modalism but could not be considered a solid refutation of the trinity doctrine. Here is why:1. Although two persons are mentioned in the text (“God the Father” and “Christ”) there is no mention of, or allusion to, their respective ontologies.2. Although one (Christ) is clearly portrayed in a position of submission to the other (God the Father), this is perfectly compatible with trinitarian dogma.

So again we have a proof text that has been porported to debunk the trinity doctrine but falls well short of the mark. Okay, I guess I should expand on both of these points:-

In expansion of point #1 I’ll write this:

Let’s be clear about this, the requisite evidence to disprove trinitarianism must strike at the foundation of what they believe, which, in a nut shell, is this:

YHWH is plurality within ontological unity. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct personages, each sharing the substance/essence/nature that makes God God.

Is there anything in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 text that challenged this statement? If so, I don’t recognise it. Yes, Paul certainly makes a distinction between the two persons of the Father and Son, which does appear to invalidate the modalist’s concept that the Father and Son are merely modes/manifestations of the same One divine personage, but it is not legitimate proof against the doctrine of the trinity. And let’s remember this, we are explicitly told in Phil. 2:6 that the Logos existed (perpetually) in the form (nature) of God, in John 1:1c that the Logos “was God”, and in Heb 1:3 that the Son’s essence/substance (Gr. “hypostasis”) is an exact representation of the Father’s, so on what grounds could it possibly be argued that His very being was inferior? It can’t.

So what of Paul’s use of the appellatives “God” (Gr. theos) to designate the Father and “Christ” (or “Son” in some MSS – e.g. textus receptus) to designate Yeshua? Well a cursory examination of Paul’s writings will reveal that usually “theos” is used by him in reference to the Father (but sometimes the Son) and “kurios” is usually used in reference to Yehsua (but also the Father). Other authors, like Luke for instance, also showed a remarkable ambiguity in the use of the term “kurios” relative to Jesus and the Father. Both theos and kurios are appropriate designations to identify the Most High God, YHWH, in scripture so it’s seems a perfectly legitimate literary mechanism to assign different terms (which both denote deity) to each person when both are in view. This would serve to distinguish the two individual persons of the Father and Son without invoking modalistic thought (as would occur if either theos or kurios was used for each) but without delineating them ontologically. So Paul’s ascription of theos to the Father in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 passage and “Christos” to Yeshua is not telling us that Yeshua is not “God” (which would be in direct contradiction to his explicit affirmation in Titus 2:13), it’s simply Paul’s way of distinguishing the persons of the Father and Son in the text. Nothing more.

In expansion of point #2 I’ll write this:

As I previously mentioned in the last proof text I responded to Yeshua is a man, born of woman and born under the law (Gal. 4:4). As a man subject to the law he MUST assume the role of subservient to the Father, His God. Had He not been subservient to His Father in accordance with the Law He would not have been the sinless Lamb of God, the sacrifice was meaningless and the sin dilemma remains in effect for mankind. So the submission demonstrated in NT scripture is a function of the incarnation (when deity put on humanity), not a comment of His intrinsic nature relative to His Father’s. Is this a valid refutation of the doctrine? No. Trinitarians, as far I can tell, affirm the humanity of Christ. The line of authority elucidated in 1 Cor 15:27-28 is a natural consequence of His incarnation, when he “became flesh” (John 1:14) it was to be forever….

Just in closing, it’s interesting to compare verse 28 with a passage that Paul penned in his letter to the Colossians (Col. 3:11)

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. (1 Corinthians 15:28)

cf.

a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all. (Colossians 3:11, cf. Eph. 1:23)

The grammar that was used of “God” in 1 Corinthians was also used of “Christ” in Colossians. I really like what C. H. Spurgeon wrote about this verse – “for Christ is not almost all, but all in all.” (source). Indeed Christ is all. Amen to that.


Discussion

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  • #52352
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Isa 43:11
    I, even I, am the LORD; and *beside me there is no saviour*.
    *****************

    Jesus acts in God's stead. So that in that way, God is our ultimate Saviour – reconciling us to himself *through* his Son. I've often pondered this idea that God is our ONLY Saviour, and yet Jesus is also (either in conjuction or in God's stead) also our Saviour. Yet there are not two Saviour's but one. Right? :)

    #52357
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Jude 25
    God is our Saviour *through* Jesus Christ. (Gathered from a previous post).

    #52378

    Quote (Not3in1 @ May 17 2007,10:15)
    Isa 43:11
    I, even I, am the LORD; and *beside me there is no saviour*.
    *****************

    Jesus acts in God's stead.  So that in that way, God is our ultimate Saviour – reconciling us to himself *through* his Son.  I've often pondered this idea that God is our ONLY Saviour, and yet Jesus is also (either in conjuction or in God's stead) also our Saviour.  Yet there are not two Saviour's but one.  Right?  :)


    not3

    I encourage you to look at the following!

    Isa 43:11
    I, even I, am the LORD; and *beside me there is no saviour*.

    Isa 45:21
    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD (YHWH)? and there is no God else beside me; a just *God and a Saviour*; there is *none beside me*[/U].

    Hsa 13:4
    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: *for there is no saviour beside me*.

    There is “None beside me, beside me there is none”.

    Look at these scriptures…

    Isa 44:24
    Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; *that stretcheth forth the heavens alone*; that spreadeth abroad the earth *by myself*;

    Isa 45:18
    For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: *I am the LORD; and there is none else*.

    Isa 46:9
    Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and *there is none else*; I am God, and *there is none like me*,

    These scriptures bear out that God not only is our only Saviour, but also he says that he alone created the heavens and there is “None like him”.

    This presents a real problem for the Unitarians and the Henotheist and Arians.

    Because the Jews were strict Monotheist, and that Apostles like Paul and John and Luke and Thomas and Titus and Peter all referred to Yeshua as being God, as well as many church fathers.

    See..

    http://www.bible.ca/H-trinity.htm

    Now think about this. All the original Apostles were Monotheist who knew the Hebrew scriptures, and they believed that YHWH is One God and that he alone created the heavens and that by himself he is Savior and that there is none like him.

    Yet these same men spoke of Yeshua as being God, and Paul and John giving us unambiguous scriptures that all things were made by Yeshua and for him and without him was not anything made that was made, and that by him all things consist, and he is before all things and by the Word of his power all things are upheld, and that he has all power and authority in heaven and in earth, and a name that is above every name.

    This is an incredible thing for these strict Monotheistic Jews who believed that his name was too holy to speak and who were devout followers of the commandments, for them to speak of another being as they did about Jesus in light of the Hebrew scriptures they had, understanding fully that they would be breaking the 1st and 2nd commandments by doing so. These same men were willing to die for their faith in this Jesus by calling him Lord and master and King of Kings and Lord of Lords.

    For those apostles to speak of Jesus in their writings about him in the manner they did if he was not God in the flesh would be blasphemy and Idolatry.

    GW put it very well and all she got was scorn without any one challenging the substance of her words in the following…

    “The writer of Hebrews clearly states that Jesus is the EXACT image and representative of Jehovah God the Father (Heb. 1:3). If He is a god and not Jehovah God the Son, then worship of the Father through this image or representative is idolatry and in violation of the Second Commandment.  Should the Second Commandment be rewritten to read: “You must not make for yourself a carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under the earth because I have already created one.  You must not bow down to anyone or anything except this one that I have personally created.  I used Him to create everything else and you are not to worship me through anything He created.  But, it is okay for you to worship Me through Him since I personally created Him.  

    The New Testament commands believers to honor the Son in the SAME WAY that they honor the Father (Jn. 5:23).  We are to approach the Father though the Son (Eph. 2:18) and all prayers are to be addressed to the Father through the Son. All blessings or promises made are to be received through and because of Jesus’ name and all worship paid to Jehovah is to be directed to the Father through the Son (Rom. 1:8; 3:24; 5:9; 6:11, 23; 7:25; 15:17; 16:27; I Pet. 4:11; 2 Cor. 3:4; Jn. 1:7; 20:31; Lk. 10:17; Jn. 3:17; 15:3; Acts 10:43; 15:11; 2 Tim. 3:15; 1 Jn. 4:9; Acts 3:16; 4:2; 13:38; Col. 1:14, 22; Tit. 3:16; etc.). If Jesus is merely “god”, part of the creation, and the true God’s representative, then the writers of the New Testament encouraged all who believed in Jesus as God to break both the First and Second Commandments.”

    Just something to think about.

    Blessings!

    :)

    #52379
    Tim2
    Participant

    Not3in1,

    You are right. God is our Saviour. Jesus is our Saviour. And there is only one Saviour. :)

    Isaiah 43;11 says, “I, even I, am YHWH, and there is no saviour besides Me?” So when Jesus is called our Saviour, Titus 1:4, then there are only two possibilities: Jesus is God, or Paul is blaspheming. I don't think the “through” argument resolves this at all. Paul says all things are through God. Romans 11:36. Jude 25 is talking about our worship being to God and through Jesus, not God's salvation being from God and through Jesus, although that is true. In any event, our salvation being through someone other than YHWH is impossible according to Isaiah 43:11.

    Tim

    #52380
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Tim2,
    Little problem.
    Jesus has a God.
    Jn 20
    ” 16Jesus saith unto her, Mary. She turned herself, and saith unto him, Rabboni; which is to say, Master.

    17Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.”

    #52389
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 10 2007,12:29)
    t8

    Jn 1:3
    All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

    Again t8.

    If Jesus shared in the creation and he was not the Word that was with God and the Word that was God, but instead as you say “the word was divine” then you contradict the Hebrew scriptures…


    WJ.

    I have asked this question to CultB and I haven't seen an answer yet, but maybe I haven't looked very hard.

    Anyway, maybe you can answer this question seen as how you are treading in the general area.

    Do you believe that God made all things THROUGH Christ, or do you believe that CHRIST actually made it himself?

    :)

    #52444

    Quote (t8 @ May 17 2007,21:56)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 10 2007,12:29)
    t8

    Jn 1:3
    All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

    Again t8.

    If Jesus shared in the creation and he was not the Word that was with God and the Word that was God, but instead as you say “the word was divine” then you contradict the Hebrew scriptures…


    WJ.

    I have asked this question to CultB and I haven't seen an answer yet, but maybe I haven't looked very hard.

    Anyway, maybe you can answer this question seen as how you are treading in the general area.

    Do you believe that God made all things THROUGH Christ, or do you believe that CHRIST actually made it himself?

    :)


    t8

    The problem you have is not seeing that God is One and yet plural, “plurality in unity”, is a very basic building block of the creation, which also declares the Glory of God.

    The scriptures are clear that there is three persons.

    One Spirit, Three persons, One God.

    So here is your answer which I doubt you will accept.

    Gen 1:1
    In the beginning *God* created the heaven and the earth.

    Yet we read…
    And God said, *Let us make man in our image*, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

    Moses had some understanding I believe that there was more than one in the Godhead, yet there is “One God”.

    Moses said “God” yet Moses quoted God “Let us” “in our”.

    Moses also said the “Spirit of God”, “Moved”, which is an indication that the Spirit of God had life.

    Gen 1:2
    …And the Spirit of God *moved* upon the face of the waters

    The Hebrew word for “Moved” literally means to hover over, or brood over as a mother hen over her chicks.

    Yet Moses all through his account of the creation says 'God”.

    Then we read…

    Isa 43:11
    I, even I, am the LORD; and *beside me there is no saviour*.

    Isa 45:21
    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD (YHWH)? and there is no God else beside me; a just *God and a Saviour*; there is *none beside me*.

    Hsa 13:4
    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: *for there is no saviour beside me*.

    There is “None beside me, beside me there is none”.

    Isa 44:24
    Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; *that stretcheth forth the heavens alone*; that spreadeth abroad the earth *by myself*;

    Isa 45:18
    For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: *I am the LORD; and there is none else*.

    Isa 46:9
    Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and *there is none else*; I am God, and *there is none like me*,

    Again I reiterate these scriptures bear out that God not only is our only Saviour, but also he says that he alone created the heavens and there is…

    “None like him”, “By Myself”. “None Else”.

    t8 you can play word games all you want with the word “Dia” which can be translated through or by.

    It makes no difference in light of the above scriptures.

    Rom 11:36
    For of him, and through (dia) him, and to him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.

    The context in the above scripture seems to be talking about the Father yet Paul through the whole chapter never mentions neither the Father nor the Son.

    That seems to be the problem dosnt it t8?

    Very often it is hard to tell who Paul is referring to for he says “God”.

    Now based on Rom 11:36 it says refering to “God” that…

    For of him and “through (dia) him, and to him *are all things*: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.

    Yet we read Paul saying…

    Col 1:
    16 For by him (through him) were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: *all things were created by him, and for him*:
    17 And he is before all things, and by him all things consist.

    So based on this, Romans 11:36 which in its context is God, also applys to Yeshua!

    How can this be t8?

    In light of Hebrew scriptures, and especially the fact that Paul a (Hebrew of the Hebrews) and John (the Beloved Desciple), being strict Monotheist could place Yeshua in the creation of all things this way?

    John remembering Genesis 1 writes…

    Jn 1:
    1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
    2 The same was in the beginning with God. (the us and our)
    3 *All things were made by him*; and *without him* was not *any thing made that was made*.

    Analogy

    Party 1 says “I want to build a house”.

    Party 1 has Party 2 (a contractor) build the house.

    Party 1 says “I built a house”.

    Party 1 built the house “Through” the contractor.

    t8 did party 2 build the house?

    Yeshua is not just a funnel that the Father poured his power through.

    He is the very essence and substance that “all things” were made by.

    Col 1:17
    And he is before all things, and *by him all things consist*.

    Heb 1:3
    Who being the *brightness of his glory*, and the express image of his person, and *upholding all things by the word of his power*, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the *right hand of the Majesty on high*;

    Remember t8, that beside him there is “NO OTHER”, *he that stretcheth forth the heavens alone that spreadeth abroad the earth *by myself*, and his Glory as God he will share with no other.

    How could he, for he is a class of being “all by himself”.

    Yet this same Word that was with the Father came down from heaven and has now returned back to heaven to his previous state and the Glory he shared with the Father as God.

    Truly the Word was with God and the Word was/is God!

    Blessings

    :)

    #52446
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Is God the Word?

    #52447
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    So WorshippingJesus.

    From what you have said, I take that you hold to the view that Jesus created all things and that the he created all these things through himself.

    Is this a correct interpretation of your position?

    #52448

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 18 2007,11:44)
    Hi W,
    Is God the Word?


    NH

    I am not of the opinion that the “Word” in John 1:1 is the spoken word of God.

    God didnt speak and Yeshua came into being.

    Jesus is named the “Word of God” in revelation I believe because the word of God proceeds from him.

    He, Yeshua upholds all things by the “Word of his power”, the same word that brought all things into existence.

    He is the giver and source of all life, and said the words that he spoke were Spirit and life for by him “all things were created”.

    Hidden in the Father and Jesus are all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge, therefore Jesus is made unto us wisdom.

    :)

    #52449
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi w,
    Is God the Word who was with Him?
    Christ PROCEEDED FORTH and CAME FROM GOD.

    #52450
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    You say
    “Hidden in the Father and Jesus are all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge, therefore Jesus is made unto us wisdom.”

    Since you make Christ the source of all things is not by your doctrine the Father made non-existant and impotent or at least irrelevant?

    #52452

    Quote (t8 @ May 18 2007,12:12)
    So WorshippingJesus.

    From what you have said, I take that you hold to the view that Jesus created all things and that the he created all these things through himself.

    Is this a correct interpretation of your position?


    t8

    Is that all the response that you have?

    Rom 11:36
    [/I]For of him, and through (dia) him, and to him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.[/I]

    Isa 44:24
    Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; *that stretcheth forth the heavens alone*; that spreadeth abroad the earth *by myself*;

    According to the above scriptures t8 did God create everything through himself?

    Why dont you address this scriptures that I post t8?

    How can Yeshua have anything to do with the creation if he is not God in light of the scriptures I post.

    ???

    #52453

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 18 2007,12:24)
    Hi W,
    You say
    “Hidden in the Father and Jesus are all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge, therefore Jesus is made unto us wisdom.”

    Since you make Christ the source of all things is not by your doctrine the Father made non-existant and impotent or at least irrelevant?


    NH

    Not at all.

    Because he is God, one with the Father and the Spirit.

    By him Jesus all things consist and all things are upheld by the word of his power.

    He said “I am the way the truth and *The life*.

    #52457
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    He was given to have life in him by the Father and to become for us the source of that godly life.

    If God is not the Word, was God the Word?

    If not then the interpretation you put on Jn 1.1 is not robust and should be reviewed?

    #52458

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 18 2007,12:42)
    Hi W,
    He was given to have life in him by the Father and to become for us the source of that godly life.

    If God is not the Word, was God the Word?

    If not then the interpretation you put on Jn 1.1 is not robust and should be reviewed?


    NH

    Yet Yeshua “Is the Life”.

    The “Word” is simply a name John chose to use because of the gnostics in his day.

    He did not want any confusion about Yeshua coming in the flesh.

    Since John in John 1:1 is dealing with the beginning and Yeshua had not come in the flesh yet, and hadnt been given the name by the Angel “Jesus” John used the “Logos” to describe him being with God and that he was God.

    If he had of used his earthly name Yeshua or Jesus then many may claim that he just came down from heaven without the natural birth.

    I believe that John borrowed the term from his vision on the Isle of Patmos, since Revelations was written around 70 ad and the gospel of John was written in the 80s or 90s.

    Jesus was named the Word of God, therefore he used the name to describe Yeshua before his birth.

    :)

    #52459
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Indeed for us Christ is the source of the waters of Life because he had been given to have a fullness of that Spirit of Life
    'Jn 7
    “37In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink.

    38He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.

    39(But this spake he of the Spirit, which they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.) “

    Jesus Christ came in the flesh.
    2Jn
    ” 7For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist. “

    So he can be said to have been the Christ before he came surely.

    #52474
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 19 2007,07:27)

    Quote (t8 @ May 18 2007,12:12)
    So WorshippingJesus.

    From what you have said, I take that you hold to the view that Jesus created all things and that the he created all these things through himself.

    Is this a correct interpretation of your position?


    t8

    Is that all the response that you have?

    Rom 11:36
    [/I]For of him, and through (dia) him, and to him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.[/I]

    Isa 44:24
    Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; *that stretcheth forth the heavens alone*; that spreadeth abroad the earth *by myself*;

    According to the above scriptures t8 did God create everything through himself?

    Why dont you address this scriptures that I post t8?

    How can Yeshua have anything to do with the creation if he is not God in light of the scriptures I post.

    ???


    WJ.

    It is hard to understand what your stand is.

    I cannot figure out from your own explanations to your understanding and teaching whether:

  • God created all things through Christ Jesus;
  • Jesus created all things through himself;
  • Jesus created all things through no one;
  • or some other explanation.

    If someone asked you who created the universe, I guess your answer would be Jesus.

    But what if someone asked you “Who did God create the universe through?”

    What would your answer be then?

    I think if you teach here, then you should at least make it clear as to that which you teach.

    We should be able to give an answer to that which we believe and especially that which we teach. Making everything mysterious can be a hiding place for someone who is confused and lacks understanding.

#52487
Not3in1
Participant

Tim 2 wrote:
In any event, our salvation being through someone other than YHWH is impossible according to Isaiah 43:11.
**************************
Salvation is of God. Is his “arm” too short to save? “Arm” can be translated “offspring.” In many instances in Isaiah the “arm” is working salvation FOR God. I'll have to find those verses for you tomorrow. But it is reasonable to see that Jesus worked salvation for the LORD. God looked and there was no one to do it for him. So God created his own way of delivering salvation to the world.

#52488
Not3in1
Participant

WJ,

Thanks for your post.

You write below:
GW put it very well and all she got was scorn without any one challenging the substance of her words in the following…

“The writer of Hebrews clearly states that Jesus is the EXACT image and representative of Jehovah God the Father (Heb. 1:3). If He is a god and not Jehovah God the Son, then worship of the Father through this image or representative is idolatry and in violation of the Second Commandment. Should the Second Commandment be rewritten to read: “You must not make for yourself a carved image or a form like anything that is in the heavens above or that is on the earth underneath or that is in the waters under the earth because I have already created one. You must not bow down to anyone or anything except this one that I have personally created. I used Him to create everything else and you are not to worship me through anything He created. But, it is okay for you to worship Me through Him since I personally created Him.
***************************************

I prefer this paraphrased edition of Heb. 1:3 –

Jesus Christ is the reflection of God's power. He is the extraordinary Man whose appearance attracts attention. He radiates the character of God to the world, being the exact impression of God's heart. The invisible God is the unseen foundation upon which Jesus Christ built his life. God is the Author of the master plan of salvation, and Jesus Christ is the Agent who is carrying it out. [Quoted from the book: One God and One Lord – Reconsidering the Cornerstone of the Christian Faith]

However, I will revisit my notes on this subject from a few years ago and see what I thought then compared to what I believe about the one Savior (and Jesus also being called our Savior) now. I do believe that God is our Savior and Jesus Christ is his Son (Savior in his stead, so to speak.).

You write:
These scriptures bear out that God not only is our only Saviour, but also he says that he alone created the heavens and there is “None like him”.
**************************

No one is like God. No “one” can ever be like God – not even Jesus. As shocking as that may sound, I believe it's true. Jesus is God's Son, but he was born of a women. God is not a man.

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