Trinity Debate – 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Subject:  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 disproves the Trinity Doctrine
Date: April 10 2007
Debaterst8  & Is 1: 18


t8

To prove that the Trinity Doctrine is the invention of man and not from scripture, I give 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 as a proof text.

24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.

25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.

26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death.

27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.

28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This piece of text is very interesting because it reveals God’s plan and will. This plan shows us the following:

 

  • At the end of this age, Jesus hands over the Kingdom to God the Father.
  • Before the end, Christ rules until all enemies are under his feet.
  • God puts all under Christ’s feet. All except God (as you would expect).
  • In the end, the son will be subject to God the Father, so that God can dwell in all.

 

The first point I want to talk about is the truth that all is/will be under Christ except God.

So from this text at least, we have a clear explanation as to redemptive plan of God through Christ and in explaining this, it actually says that all will be under his feet except God. So to take the great authority that Christ has to mean that he is God, is obviously incorrect when we read and understand 1 Corinthians 24-28.

The first century was a very different time to now and we should be careful to view their time through todays paradigm. For example, they didn’t have a Trinity doctrine back then and never used the word Trinity in scripture. The absence of such a teaching and usage in the bible is evident because the Trinity doctrine came into existence hundreds of years later.

This is why 1 Corinthians can clearly say that Jesus isn’t God with no hesitation. It doesn’t say that Jesus isn’t God in defense of those who say that he is, it simply says it innocently within a different context because saying that he was actually part of a Trinity God wasn’t an issue in that time.

“Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”

This particular verse points out that God himself put everything under Christ and God is identified earlier in verse 24 as the Father.

Now in these times and in times past the world is and has been drunk on the wine of Babylon and given this influence, I doubt that any Trinitarian in any century could write 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 from his own theology because he would have to write about God as being the Father and not the son.

A Trinitarian who wanted to convey the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and keep his theology intact would most likely say something like:
“….it is clear that this doesn’t include God the Father who put everything under God the son”. 

Even then, a Trinitarian probably wouldn’t write such a text because it would infringe on his version of co-equal.

But sadly for Trinitarians but joyfully for the truth, it says “…it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”.

God and Christ are 2 different identities in these verses, that is clear. It is also clear that God is identified as the Father and when read as such, the text makes perfect sense as you find with hundreds of other scriptures.

If Paul believed in the Trinitarian doctrine as Trinitarians must claim, then Paul must have had a lapse in memory that day, for he clearly talks of God and Christ as two. In fact Paul must have had a very bad memory problem, because he neglected to mention or teach the Trinity in any of his letters. If the Trinity Doctrine was true and a foundational truth that many claim, then we could also say that Paul was quite neglectful for not including it in his writings.

So perhaps it is possible that the Trinity Doctrine wasn’t something that Paul taught or believed at all. Perhaps that doctrine gained prominence when Athanasus and the Emperor Constantine did their works after the time of Paul.

Perhaps it is also possible that Paul knew what he was talking about when he said:

2 Thessalonians 2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 
&
Acts 20:29
29 I know that after I leave, savage wolves will come in among you and will not spare the flock.
30 Even from your own number men will arise and distort the truth in order to draw away disciples after them.
31 So be on your guard! Remember that for three years I never stopped warning each of you night and day with tears.




Is 1:18

1 Corinthians 15:24-28
24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This proof text is, I think, excellent evidence against modalism but could not be considered a solid refutation of the trinity doctrine. Here is why:1. Although two persons are mentioned in the text (“God the Father” and “Christ”) there is no mention of, or allusion to, their respective ontologies.2. Although one (Christ) is clearly portrayed in a position of submission to the other (God the Father), this is perfectly compatible with trinitarian dogma.

So again we have a proof text that has been porported to debunk the trinity doctrine but falls well short of the mark. Okay, I guess I should expand on both of these points:-

In expansion of point #1 I’ll write this:

Let’s be clear about this, the requisite evidence to disprove trinitarianism must strike at the foundation of what they believe, which, in a nut shell, is this:

YHWH is plurality within ontological unity. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct personages, each sharing the substance/essence/nature that makes God God.

Is there anything in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 text that challenged this statement? If so, I don’t recognise it. Yes, Paul certainly makes a distinction between the two persons of the Father and Son, which does appear to invalidate the modalist’s concept that the Father and Son are merely modes/manifestations of the same One divine personage, but it is not legitimate proof against the doctrine of the trinity. And let’s remember this, we are explicitly told in Phil. 2:6 that the Logos existed (perpetually) in the form (nature) of God, in John 1:1c that the Logos “was God”, and in Heb 1:3 that the Son’s essence/substance (Gr. “hypostasis”) is an exact representation of the Father’s, so on what grounds could it possibly be argued that His very being was inferior? It can’t.

So what of Paul’s use of the appellatives “God” (Gr. theos) to designate the Father and “Christ” (or “Son” in some MSS – e.g. textus receptus) to designate Yeshua? Well a cursory examination of Paul’s writings will reveal that usually “theos” is used by him in reference to the Father (but sometimes the Son) and “kurios” is usually used in reference to Yehsua (but also the Father). Other authors, like Luke for instance, also showed a remarkable ambiguity in the use of the term “kurios” relative to Jesus and the Father. Both theos and kurios are appropriate designations to identify the Most High God, YHWH, in scripture so it’s seems a perfectly legitimate literary mechanism to assign different terms (which both denote deity) to each person when both are in view. This would serve to distinguish the two individual persons of the Father and Son without invoking modalistic thought (as would occur if either theos or kurios was used for each) but without delineating them ontologically. So Paul’s ascription of theos to the Father in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 passage and “Christos” to Yeshua is not telling us that Yeshua is not “God” (which would be in direct contradiction to his explicit affirmation in Titus 2:13), it’s simply Paul’s way of distinguishing the persons of the Father and Son in the text. Nothing more.

In expansion of point #2 I’ll write this:

As I previously mentioned in the last proof text I responded to Yeshua is a man, born of woman and born under the law (Gal. 4:4). As a man subject to the law he MUST assume the role of subservient to the Father, His God. Had He not been subservient to His Father in accordance with the Law He would not have been the sinless Lamb of God, the sacrifice was meaningless and the sin dilemma remains in effect for mankind. So the submission demonstrated in NT scripture is a function of the incarnation (when deity put on humanity), not a comment of His intrinsic nature relative to His Father’s. Is this a valid refutation of the doctrine? No. Trinitarians, as far I can tell, affirm the humanity of Christ. The line of authority elucidated in 1 Cor 15:27-28 is a natural consequence of His incarnation, when he “became flesh” (John 1:14) it was to be forever….

Just in closing, it’s interesting to compare verse 28 with a passage that Paul penned in his letter to the Colossians (Col. 3:11)

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. (1 Corinthians 15:28)

cf.

a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all. (Colossians 3:11, cf. Eph. 1:23)

The grammar that was used of “God” in 1 Corinthians was also used of “Christ” in Colossians. I really like what C. H. Spurgeon wrote about this verse – “for Christ is not almost all, but all in all.” (source). Indeed Christ is all. Amen to that.


Discussion

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  • #50439
    Cult Buster
    Participant

    Worshipping Jesus

    Quote
    We know Yeshua is our “Only Saviour and lord”, the mediator by whom we approach the Father through his flesh right.

    Yet we read..
    Isa 43:11
    I, even I, am the LORD; and *beside me there is no saviour*.

    Isa 45:21
    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD (YHWH)? and there is no God else beside me; a just *God and a Saviour*; there is *none beside me*.

    Hsa 13:4
    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: *for there is no saviour beside me*.

    Since we know that scriptures declare that there is *None beside him* (YHWH), and yet Yeshua is our Saviour, then we only have three possible scenarios,

    1. God lied

    2. The scriputers contradict themselves

    3. YWHY is the only Saviour and there is none beside him.

    WJ. The third scenario is Biblically accurate. Yes! Only Jehovah God is our Saviour.

    Mat 1:21  And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

    2Pe 3:18  But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen.

    Jesus is our Saviour; our mighty Jehovah  :O

    #50452
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Jesus is our Saviour; our mighty Jehovah
    ************

    This doesn't sound like any confession I've read in the scriptures.

    Who confessed this concerning Jesus?

    #50457
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ April 25 2007,10:49)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 25 2007,10:40)
    Hi W,
    You say
    “Ahh, so there is another agent other than God?”
    Is God an agent of a greater being?
    No.
    The Son is.


    NH

    God dosnt have an “agent” no more.

    He both mediator and God.

    The Father, The Son and the Holy Spirit are the One God.

    So it is written.

    :)


    Hi W,
    Where is the verse?

    How fair would it feel if you went for mediation
    and found the mediator was also the one
    you had a relationship problem with?

    #50464
    Tim2
    Participant

    Hi Nick,

    Why do you follow this 16th century human tradition of verses and not listen to the whole of Scripture? I've shown where it is written that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are each God, but you won't listen.

    A mediator has to be able to bind both parties in order for the mediation to accomplish anything. How can someone less than God bind God?

    Tim

    #50469
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hitim2,
    We no longer follow tradition.

    So the mediator for men has to be God?

    So the mediator for men is not a man?

    1 Timothy 2:5
    For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

    #50483

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 25 2007,16:57)
    Hitim2,
    We no longer follow tradition.

    So the mediator for men has to be God?

    So the mediator for men is not a man?

    1 Timothy 2:5
    For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;


    NH

    Gal 3:20
    A mediator, however, does not represent just one party; but God is one.

    A mediator involves two partys and the mediator between the two.

    This scripture bears out that God is One.

    He is both the mediator and the 1 party.

    1 Timothy 2:5
    For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

    God was manifest in the flesh reconciling the world unto himself.

    Jn 1:1 and 14

    :)

    #50487
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    So in context.
    Gal 3
    16Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

    17And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

    18For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.

    19Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

    20Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.

    21Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.

    22But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

    So the mediator here is Moses who brought the law from the ONE GOD to men.
    The promise to Abraham is greater than the law which it is not annulled by.
    Moses was a man and a mediator is serving to bind two-in this case God and man.

    So learn from God that He is ONE.

    #50497

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 25 2007,17:48)
    Hi W,
    So in context.
    Gal 3
    16Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

    17And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

    18For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise.

    19Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

    20Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but God is one.

    21Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.

    22But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

    So the mediator here is Moses who brought the law from the ONE GOD to men.
    The promise to Abraham is greater than the law which it is not annulled by.
    Moses was a man and a mediator is serving to bind two-in this case God and man.

    So learn from God that He is ONE.


    NH

    How does any of the scriptures you quote contradict that God was manifest in the flesh reconciling the world unto himself.

    He is our only Saiour and there is none else.

    Isa 43:11
    I, even I, am the LORD; and *beside me there is no saviour*.

    Isa 45:21
    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD (YHWH)? and there is no God else beside me; a just *God and a Saviour*; there is *none beside me*.

    Hsa 13:4
    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: *for there is no saviour beside me*.

    He is our only Savior. You need to get the heretical idea that the “law of agency” still exist under the New Covenant out of your head.

    God is our mediator our Savior! Yeshua the Lord from heaven the second Adam, the Unique, Monogenes Son of God, the Word/God in the flesh.

    The Father, The Son and the Holy Spirit dosnt need any other being.

    One God. Three persons One Spirit.

    :O

    #50504
    Tim2
    Participant

    Nick says,

    Quote
    We no longer follow tradition.

    Good. Then stop posting on this board and asking people to follow your tradition.

    Tim

    #50508
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Tim2,
    You offer us traditional creeds as your faith base and do not see that it is you who follows tradition?

    #50512
    Tim2
    Participant

    No. I follow tradition. Tradition is good. 1 Corinthians 11:2.

    You think that you are smarter than every human being who has ever existed and that you've discovered the truth of the Bible that no one else ever has. And you are trying to start your own tradition, otherwise you wouldn't be sharing your ideas with others. Right? Obviously you can't share your ideas with your kids, if you don't want to start a tradition, right?

    Tim

    #50514
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hmmm

    #50530
    Kyle
    Participant

    Tim's got a point. Tradition isn't always bad, just blindly following false tradition. Every culture is deeply rooted in tradition of every kind. We all follow all kinds of traditions and break many others. We just need to recognize tradition for what it is, just tradition.

    #50568
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi kyle,
    Tim2 admits he follows tradition but he should follow Jesus.
    Tradition was that which the pharisees followed.

    Mk 7
    ” 5Then the Pharisees and scribes asked him, Why walk not thy disciples according to the tradition of the elders, but eat bread with unwashen hands?

    6He answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me.

    7Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.

    8For laying aside the commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men, as the washing of pots and cups: and many other such like things ye do.

    9And he said unto them, Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition. “

    That god was not our God and the leaven of the Pharisees was not the Spirit of God.
    We were warned against that leaven.

    Mt 16
    ” 5And when his disciples were come to the other side, they had forgotten to take bread.

    6Then Jesus said unto them, Take heed and beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees.

    7And they reasoned among themselves, saying, It is because we have taken no bread.

    8Which when Jesus perceived, he said unto them, O ye of little faith, why reason ye among yourselves, because ye have brought no bread?

    9Do ye not yet understand, neither remember the five loaves of the five thousand, and how many baskets ye took up?

    10Neither the seven loaves of the four thousand, and how many baskets ye took up?

    11How is it that ye do not understand that I spake it not to you concerning bread, that ye should beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees?

    12Then understood they how that he bade them not beware of the leaven of bread, but of the doctrine of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees.”

    That leaven caused them to rise up against God's anointed even killing him-such is the spirit of antichrist.

    The spirit of antichrist leads men to develop their own doctrines from outside of scripture-such as trinity theory.

    2Jn
    ” 7For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.

    8Look to yourselves, that we lose not those things which we have wrought, but that we receive a full reward.

    9Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.

    10If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed:

    11For he that biddeth him God speed is partaker of his evil deeds.”

    #50609
    Cult Buster
    Participant

    Nick Hassen

    Quote
    Hi kyle,
    Tim2 admits he follows tradition but he should follow Jesus.
    Tradition was that which the pharisees followed.

    Nick. Is it true that you follow the tradition of the pharisees?

    Both the pharisees and you deny the deity of Christ    :D

    Isa 42:20  Seeing many things, but thou observest not; opening the ears, but he heareth not.

    #50612
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi CB,
    For us there is ONE GOD,THE FATHER.
    How many deities do you have?

    #50636

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 26 2007,16:53)
    Hi CB,
    For us there is ONE GOD,THE FATHER.
    How many deities do you have?


    NH

    You believe in One God the Father and a son who was God!

    ??? ??? ???

    #50654
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ April 27 2007,03:31)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 26 2007,16:53)
    Hi CB,
    For us there is ONE GOD,THE FATHER.
    How many deities do you have?


    NH

    You believe in One God the Father and a son who was God!

    ???  ???  ???


    Hi W,
    Jn1
    1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

    2The same was in the beginning with God.

    1Jn 1
    1That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;

    2(For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)

    Phil 2
    5Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus,

    6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,

    7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. “

    So in the first two verses we have three statements that the Word was WITH GOD in the beginning. Such is established as scriptural fact.

    We have only one statement that the Word WAS GOD. The only other verse that seems to parallel this that I can find is Phil 2 when it says the was IN THE FORM OF GOD.

    All the verses do not speak to any time except “the beginning”. To extrapolate from there into the present or before the epoch of the beginning is not valid.

    The verses do not speak of a continuum but a specified epoch. WAS does not mean “used to be FOREVER” or “remains as such FOREVER.” You may believe these things but they are not found stated here.

    Comparison of Phil 2 with 1Jn tells us of the divine origins of the Word who is revealed in 1Jn 1 to be Jesus Christ, the SON of God. None of the verses speaks of the Word being a deity to be worshiped but that Deity is shown to be the God he was WITH in Jn 1, and revealed as THE FATHER in 1Jn 1.

    We have ONE GOD AND ONE LORD but those who are not among us may have others.

    #50683

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 27 2007,07:07)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ April 27 2007,03:31)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 26 2007,16:53)
    Hi CB,
    For us there is ONE GOD,THE FATHER.
    How many deities do you have?


    NH

    You believe in One God the Father and a son who was God!

    ???  ???  ???


    Hi W,
    Jn1
    1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

    2The same was in the beginning with God.

    1Jn 1
    1That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;

    2(For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)

    Phil 2
    5Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus,

    6who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,

    7but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. “

    So in the first two verses we have three statements that the Word was WITH GOD in the beginning. Such is established as scriptural fact.

    We have only one statement that the Word WAS GOD. The only other verse that seems to parallel this that I can find is Phil 2 when it says the was IN THE FORM OF GOD.

    All the verses do not speak to any time except “the beginning”. To extrapolate from there into the present or before the epoch of the beginning is not valid.

    The verses do not speak of a continuum but a specified epoch. WAS does not mean “used to be FOREVER” or “remains as such FOREVER.” You may believe these things but they are not found stated here.

    Comparison of Phil 2 with 1Jn tells us of the divine origins of the Word who is revealed in 1Jn 1 to be Jesus Christ, the SON of God. None of the verses speaks of the Word being a deity to be worshiped but that Deity is shown to be the God he was WITH in Jn 1, and revealed as THE FATHER in 1Jn 1.

    We have ONE GOD AND ONE LORD but those who are not among us may have others.


    NH

    So now you are using the same method of translation you accuse Trinitarians of, piecing scriptures together.

    You are using Phil 2 and 1 Jn 1 to interpret John 1:1.

    John 1:1 is unambiguous NH.

    The Word was God.

    You try to say that this cant mean what it says.

    Phil says he is in the “morphe” of God.

    Heb 2:6
    who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,

    He was the exact representation of Gods substance. Heb 1:3

    The Word was with God and was God!

    You try to make these scriptures in John 1:1 and 1 John 1:1,2 say that in the beginning the Word was the Son.

    None of these scriptures say this unless you use inference.

    You have no proof the Word was a Son of God untill he took on the likeness of sinfull flesh and was born a Son.

    Then you say the Word was God, but ceased to be God.

    If this is true then your statement that the son was a son before he was born a son means that he is not a son anymore because he ceased to be the word/son when he was born.

    Confusion dosnt come from God but from the spirit of desception the Father of lies.

    ???

    #50694
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    He was God.
    What happened next?

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