Trinity Debate – 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Subject:  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 disproves the Trinity Doctrine
Date: April 10 2007
Debaterst8  & Is 1: 18


t8

To prove that the Trinity Doctrine is the invention of man and not from scripture, I give 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 as a proof text.

24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.

25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.

26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death.

27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.

28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This piece of text is very interesting because it reveals God’s plan and will. This plan shows us the following:

 

  • At the end of this age, Jesus hands over the Kingdom to God the Father.
  • Before the end, Christ rules until all enemies are under his feet.
  • God puts all under Christ’s feet. All except God (as you would expect).
  • In the end, the son will be subject to God the Father, so that God can dwell in all.

 

The first point I want to talk about is the truth that all is/will be under Christ except God.

So from this text at least, we have a clear explanation as to redemptive plan of God through Christ and in explaining this, it actually says that all will be under his feet except God. So to take the great authority that Christ has to mean that he is God, is obviously incorrect when we read and understand 1 Corinthians 24-28.

The first century was a very different time to now and we should be careful to view their time through todays paradigm. For example, they didn’t have a Trinity doctrine back then and never used the word Trinity in scripture. The absence of such a teaching and usage in the bible is evident because the Trinity doctrine came into existence hundreds of years later.

This is why 1 Corinthians can clearly say that Jesus isn’t God with no hesitation. It doesn’t say that Jesus isn’t God in defense of those who say that he is, it simply says it innocently within a different context because saying that he was actually part of a Trinity God wasn’t an issue in that time.

“Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”

This particular verse points out that God himself put everything under Christ and God is identified earlier in verse 24 as the Father.

Now in these times and in times past the world is and has been drunk on the wine of Babylon and given this influence, I doubt that any Trinitarian in any century could write 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 from his own theology because he would have to write about God as being the Father and not the son.

A Trinitarian who wanted to convey the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and keep his theology intact would most likely say something like:
“….it is clear that this doesn’t include God the Father who put everything under God the son”. 

Even then, a Trinitarian probably wouldn’t write such a text because it would infringe on his version of co-equal.

But sadly for Trinitarians but joyfully for the truth, it says “…it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”.

God and Christ are 2 different identities in these verses, that is clear. It is also clear that God is identified as the Father and when read as such, the text makes perfect sense as you find with hundreds of other scriptures.

If Paul believed in the Trinitarian doctrine as Trinitarians must claim, then Paul must have had a lapse in memory that day, for he clearly talks of God and Christ as two. In fact Paul must have had a very bad memory problem, because he neglected to mention or teach the Trinity in any of his letters. If the Trinity Doctrine was true and a foundational truth that many claim, then we could also say that Paul was quite neglectful for not including it in his writings.

So perhaps it is possible that the Trinity Doctrine wasn’t something that Paul taught or believed at all. Perhaps that doctrine gained prominence when Athanasus and the Emperor Constantine did their works after the time of Paul.

Perhaps it is also possible that Paul knew what he was talking about when he said:

2 Thessalonians 2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 
&
Acts 20:29
29 I know that after I leave, savage wolves will come in among you and will not spare the flock.
30 Even from your own number men will arise and distort the truth in order to draw away disciples after them.
31 So be on your guard! Remember that for three years I never stopped warning each of you night and day with tears.




Is 1:18

1 Corinthians 15:24-28
24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This proof text is, I think, excellent evidence against modalism but could not be considered a solid refutation of the trinity doctrine. Here is why:1. Although two persons are mentioned in the text (“God the Father” and “Christ”) there is no mention of, or allusion to, their respective ontologies.2. Although one (Christ) is clearly portrayed in a position of submission to the other (God the Father), this is perfectly compatible with trinitarian dogma.

So again we have a proof text that has been porported to debunk the trinity doctrine but falls well short of the mark. Okay, I guess I should expand on both of these points:-

In expansion of point #1 I’ll write this:

Let’s be clear about this, the requisite evidence to disprove trinitarianism must strike at the foundation of what they believe, which, in a nut shell, is this:

YHWH is plurality within ontological unity. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct personages, each sharing the substance/essence/nature that makes God God.

Is there anything in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 text that challenged this statement? If so, I don’t recognise it. Yes, Paul certainly makes a distinction between the two persons of the Father and Son, which does appear to invalidate the modalist’s concept that the Father and Son are merely modes/manifestations of the same One divine personage, but it is not legitimate proof against the doctrine of the trinity. And let’s remember this, we are explicitly told in Phil. 2:6 that the Logos existed (perpetually) in the form (nature) of God, in John 1:1c that the Logos “was God”, and in Heb 1:3 that the Son’s essence/substance (Gr. “hypostasis”) is an exact representation of the Father’s, so on what grounds could it possibly be argued that His very being was inferior? It can’t.

So what of Paul’s use of the appellatives “God” (Gr. theos) to designate the Father and “Christ” (or “Son” in some MSS – e.g. textus receptus) to designate Yeshua? Well a cursory examination of Paul’s writings will reveal that usually “theos” is used by him in reference to the Father (but sometimes the Son) and “kurios” is usually used in reference to Yehsua (but also the Father). Other authors, like Luke for instance, also showed a remarkable ambiguity in the use of the term “kurios” relative to Jesus and the Father. Both theos and kurios are appropriate designations to identify the Most High God, YHWH, in scripture so it’s seems a perfectly legitimate literary mechanism to assign different terms (which both denote deity) to each person when both are in view. This would serve to distinguish the two individual persons of the Father and Son without invoking modalistic thought (as would occur if either theos or kurios was used for each) but without delineating them ontologically. So Paul’s ascription of theos to the Father in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 passage and “Christos” to Yeshua is not telling us that Yeshua is not “God” (which would be in direct contradiction to his explicit affirmation in Titus 2:13), it’s simply Paul’s way of distinguishing the persons of the Father and Son in the text. Nothing more.

In expansion of point #2 I’ll write this:

As I previously mentioned in the last proof text I responded to Yeshua is a man, born of woman and born under the law (Gal. 4:4). As a man subject to the law he MUST assume the role of subservient to the Father, His God. Had He not been subservient to His Father in accordance with the Law He would not have been the sinless Lamb of God, the sacrifice was meaningless and the sin dilemma remains in effect for mankind. So the submission demonstrated in NT scripture is a function of the incarnation (when deity put on humanity), not a comment of His intrinsic nature relative to His Father’s. Is this a valid refutation of the doctrine? No. Trinitarians, as far I can tell, affirm the humanity of Christ. The line of authority elucidated in 1 Cor 15:27-28 is a natural consequence of His incarnation, when he “became flesh” (John 1:14) it was to be forever….

Just in closing, it’s interesting to compare verse 28 with a passage that Paul penned in his letter to the Colossians (Col. 3:11)

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. (1 Corinthians 15:28)

cf.

a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all. (Colossians 3:11, cf. Eph. 1:23)

The grammar that was used of “God” in 1 Corinthians was also used of “Christ” in Colossians. I really like what C. H. Spurgeon wrote about this verse – “for Christ is not almost all, but all in all.” (source). Indeed Christ is all. Amen to that.


Discussion

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  • #56571
    Not3in1
    Participant

    God addressed Jesus as “Lord” because he made him Lord! Whew, that one was easy! :)

    The Hebrews passage is not so easy. All I can really offer is that the beginning of Hebrews is confusing to me. I've done some varied reading on it and most non-Trinitarians agree that confusing and there are reasons why the one passage that is applied to God is applied to Jesus. The passage also goes on to imply that there are two “God's” – “….therefore God, your God….”

    For me, I must stick to the clear scriptures that teach God, the Father, is the sole creator of heaven and earth. Jesus was the *reason* for which God created everything *through.*

    #56573
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ June 26 2007,16:38)
    Who laid the foundation of the Earth?
    The heavens are the work of whose hands?

    According to the writer of Hebrews and God the Father it's Jesus.


    The Father laid the foundations with his own hand.

    According to God the Father – the creator is Jesus?

    Are you saying that Jesus is the Father?

    #56618
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 26 2007,16:53)
    God addressed Jesus as “Lord” because he made him Lord!  Whew, that one was easy!  :)


    It's not quite that simple Not3. There is a biblical principle to consider here. When “kurios” is used as an honorific (which is what you are alleging) it's always spoken by the subservient to the superior. Check the NT, you'll see this hold's true. Jesus' Father is not the subservient to Jesus in their relationship, so it's exceptionally unlikely that “kurios” is meant as an honorific in Hebrews 1:10. Which leaves one other alternative…..

    Quote
    Hebrews 1:10
    And,”YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS;

    Please note the highlighted word. Remembering that the texts from vs 5-12 are, according to the writer of Hebrews, attestations made by the Father to the Son (“But of the Son He says” –  vs 8), it’s evident that the Father actually addressed the Son as “Lord.” The Greek word “kurios” is used in most LXX manuscripts to render the Divine Name, YHWH. That’s well known. But also, when used in the NT as an honorific (“lord”) it signifies that the one addressed is superior in rank or station to the addresser. The slave addresses his mater as “lord”, not the other way around. This is principal is exceptionless.

    So there are two possible scenarios here:

    1) The Father was addressing the Son in a way that denoted His subservience, or inferiority in rank, to Yeshua. Or,

    2) He was addressing the Son as YHWH.

    I assert that #1 cannot be legitimate in light of the many NT verses where the Father is spoken as being “greater than” (i.e. superior in office) to the Son. So that leave only one possibility – The Father addresses the Son as YHWH. This would align perfectly with the context of Hebrews Ch 1 as a whole, which is about the absolute supremacy of the Son. It also fits precisely within the context of verses 10-12, which are OT quotations that manifestly reference YHWH…..
    https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….]


    I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer an explanation. It's a true conundrum for those who deny Jesus is YHWH. One of many….

    Quote
    The Hebrews passage is not so easy.  All I can really offer is that the beginning of Hebrews is confusing to me.  I've done some varied reading on it and most non-Trinitarians agree that confusing and there are reasons why the one passage that is applied to God is applied to Jesus.


    Okay, thanks for being so candid. I agree that Hebrews 1:10 is hard to explain from a antitrinitarian's perspective. There are no good reasons why a NT writer would apply to Jesus an OT quote that exclusively references YHWH…..unless He is YHWH. This is especially true given the context into which the quote is placed. To me the whole chapter appears specifically designed to present Jesus as YHWH to the readers.

    https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….78;st=0

    Quote
    The passage also goes on to imply that there are two “God's” – “….therefore God, your God….”


    Yes but we know that there is only one true God. Right? So the “two God” dilemma doesn't go any way towards addressing the issue in the text. It's just obfuscation.

    Quote
    For me, I must stick to the clear scriptures that teach God, the Father, is the sole creator of heaven and earth.


    Considering the Creation passages in te Bible, these two statements are, I think, undeniable:

    1. YHWH is the sole Creator of the Heavens and Earth (Psalms Psa 96:5, 102:25, Isa 44:24, Job 9:5-8, Jer 10:10-12).

    2. The prehuman Yeshua was actively involved in the Creation (John 1:3, 1 Cor 8:6, Col 1:16, Heb 1:2) to the extent where He actually “laid the foundation of the Earth” and the heavens are the work of His hands (Heb 1:10).

    How you reconcile them is up to you.

    Quote
    Jesus was the *reason* for which God created everything *through.*


    I don't recall reading that anywhere in scripture Not3. I have to assume you have some how deduced it…

    :)

    #56619
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 26 2007,16:55)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ June 26 2007,16:38)
    Who laid the foundation of the Earth?
    The heavens are the work of whose hands?

    According to the writer of Hebrews and God the Father it's Jesus.


    The Father laid the foundations with his own hand.

    According to God the Father – the creator is Jesus?

    Are you saying that Jesus is the Father?


    You say “the Father” laid the foundations with his own hand, but the Bible tells me YHWH did it. You have read a presupposition into the texts. I don't even think the Father really was “the Father” until he beget His “Son”, which didn't happan before the incarnation (i.e. He wasn't the Father at the Creation). We agree on that one right?

    Hebrews 1:5
    For to which of the angels did He ever say “YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU”? And again, “I WILL BE A FATHER TO HIM AND HE SHALL BE A SON TO ME“?

    Tell me what you think.

    :)

    #56658
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ June 26 2007,21:12)
    It's not quite that simple Not3.


    Yes, it is!
    Yes, it is!
    Yes, it is!

    :D

    You just like making things difficult.

    I'm kidding ya.

    I'll be back later tonight to address your posts. Thanks for the information and I'll be pondering what you've said today.

    #60218
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ June 26 2007,21:12)

    Quote
    Hebrews 1:10
    And,”YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS;

    So there are two possible scenarios here:

    1) The Father was addressing the Son in a way that denoted His subservience, or inferiority in rank, to Yeshua. Or,

    2) He was addressing the Son as YHWH.

    I assert that #1 cannot be legitimate in light of the many NT verses where the Father is spoken as being “greater than” (i.e. superior in office) to the Son. So that leave only one possibility – The Father addresses the Son as YHWH. This would align perfectly with the context of Hebrews Ch 1 as a whole, which is about the absolute supremacy of the Son. It also fits precisely within the context of verses 10-12, which are OT quotations that manifestly reference YHWH…..
    https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….]


    I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer an explanation. It's a true conundrum for those who deny Jesus is YHWH. One of many….

    :O :O Ahem! There was an explanation immediately after your post. What do you mean I couldn't offer an explanation? That remark is not true. :O :O

    Quote
    Verse 10 seems to be talking about the LORD and how he (&/or the author) sees the son. Not only is this evident from the fact that verse one starts off with the word “God” and then speaks about the son as another, followed by what He or the author says about the son in verses 8, but it is then obvious that it is God who is the HE in verse 13 because it says:

    “But to which of the angels has He ever said, “SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I MAKE YOUR ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR YOUR FEET”?”

    So 'HE' is obviously the one spoken of in the immediate preceeding verses, ie., verse 10 – “YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS; which then means it is a verse about the LORD, not the son.

    Think about it, the LORD/God says of his son, “sit at his right hand”. So He in verse 10 cannot be the son because if it was, then 'HE' in verse 13 would also be the son and that would then break verse 13 completely and render it as a verse that makes no sense.


    https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….78;st=0

    #60265
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Read it carefully:

    8But of the Son He [The Father, refer vs 6] says,
    “YOUR THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER,
    AND THE RIGHTEOUS SCEPTER IS THE SCEPTER OF HIS KINGDOM.
    9″YOU HAVE LOVED RIGHTEOUSNESS AND HATED LAWLESSNESS;
    THEREFORE GOD, YOUR GOD, HAS ANOINTED YOU
    WITH THE OIL OF GLADNESS ABOVE YOUR COMPANIONS.”

    10And,
    “YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS;
    11THEY WILL PERISH, BUT YOU REMAIN; AND THEY ALL WILL BECOME OLD LIKE A GARMENT,
    12AND LIKE A MANTLE YOU WILL ROLL THEM UP; LIKE A GARMENT THEY WILL ALSO BE CHANGED BUT YOU ARE THE SAME, AND YOUR YEARS WILL NOT COME TO AN END.” (Hebrews 1:8-12)

    The word “and” in verse 10 should indicate to you that it's a further utterance made by the Father to the Son. It's not a difficult passage to interpret…..

    #60268
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,16:24)
    I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer an explanation. It's a true conundrum for those who deny Jesus is YHWH. One of many….


    But you're quite right t8, you did offer an explanation. I just didnlt think it was a good one. I should have written:

    “I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer a plausible explanation.”

    #60273
    Casiphus
    Participant

    Hi Is,

    I'm not sure I understand the difficulty.

    If I have a son, it is only natural that my son would be human, because I am human.  If God has a Son, what else could he be but divine, because God is divine?

    But just as an only son becomes an inheritor of his father's possessions in many cultures here on Earth, wouldn't it stand to reason that God's only Son be inheritor of all God's creation, rather than an intrinsic but distinct part of the Godhead?

    #60281
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Hi Cas,
    I'm not completely sure why you are asking me this. I agree that Yeshua is divine. But I suppose where my view might differ from yours (from what I can infer from your post) is that I don't see His divinity (Godly essence) as being a function of a begettal (either before or during His natural birth), but that He always existed and always was divine, and that divinity was carried through in the incarnation to His Earthly existence. Deity put on humanity.

    Blessings
    :)

    #60283
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Fair enough Isaiah. But it is pure speculation and should be held as an opinion only. I invite you to teach on the rooftops that which is written, but making absolute assumptions about Christ before the beginning isn't wise in my opinion. How can any man know if it isn't revealed?

    #60284
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 17 2007,20:34)

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,16:24)
    I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer an explanation. It's a true conundrum for those who deny Jesus is YHWH. One of many….


    But you're quite right t8, you did offer an explanation. I just didnlt think it was a good one. I should have written:

    “I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer a plausible explanation.”


    He he, that is better. :)

    What about saying he offered something that I didn't like or I didn't agree with?

    #60289
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,21:49)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 17 2007,20:34)

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,16:24)
    I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer an explanation. It's a true conundrum for those who deny Jesus is YHWH. One of many….


    But you're quite right t8, you did offer an explanation. I just didnlt think it was a good one. I should have written:

    “I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer a plausible explanation.”


    He he, that is better. :)

    What about saying he offered something that I didn't like or I didn't agree with?


    I disagreed with it because it was incorrect. If you were right I would have agreed with you.

    :)

    #60290
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,21:46)
    Fair enough Isaiah. But it is pure speculation and should be held as an opinion only. I invite you to teach on the rooftops that which is written, but making absolute assumptions about Christ before the beginning isn't wise in my opinion. How can any man know if it isn't revealed?


    It's an opinion based on what scripture has revealed about Yeshua. He “existed in the form [Gr. morphe = essential nature] of God” (Phil 2:6) and “was [Gr. en = continuous existence] God”. Then ho Logos took on the form of a bond servant and became flesh…..

    What's not to get?

    #60292
    david
    Participant

    “Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God?

    Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.)

    It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon.—Luke 11:31.”–Reasoning Book.

    #60293
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 17 2007,22:00)

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,21:49)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 17 2007,20:34)

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,16:24)
    I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer an explanation. It's a true conundrum for those who deny Jesus is YHWH. One of many….


    But you're quite right t8, you did offer an explanation. I just didnlt think it was a good one. I should have written:

    “I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer a plausible explanation.”


    He he, that is better. :)

    What about saying he offered something that I didn't like or I didn't agree with?


    I disagreed with it because it was incorrect. If you were right I would have agreed with you.

    :)


    hmmm

    #60300
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Quote (david @ July 17 2007,22:07)
    “Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God?

    Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.)

    It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon.—Luke 11:31.”–Reasoning Book.

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ Mar. 24 2007,13:10)
    Hebrews 1
    1God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, 2in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world. 3And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, 4having become as much better than the angels, as He has inherited a more excellent name than they. 5For to which of the angels did He ever say, “YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU”? And again, ” I WILL BE A FATHER TO HIM AND HE SHALL BE A SON TO ME”? 6And when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says, “AND LET ALL THE ANGELS OF GOD WORSHIP HIM.” 7And of the angels He says,” WHO MAKES HIS ANGELS WINDS, AND HIS MINISTERS A FLAME OF FIRE.” 8But of the Son He says, “YOUR THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER, AND THE RIGHTEOUS SCEPTER IS THE SCEPTER OF HIS KINGDOM. 9″ YOU HAVE LOVED RIGHTEOUSNESS AND HATED LAWLESSNESS; THEREFORE GOD, YOUR GOD, HASANOINTED YOU WITH THE OIL OF GLADNESS ABOVE YOUR COMPANIONS.” 10And, “YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS; 11THEY WILL PERISH, BUT YOU REMAIN;AND THEY ALL WILL BECOME OLD LIKE A GARMENT, 12AND LIKE A MANTLE YOU WILL ROLL THEM UP;LIKE A GARMENT THEY WILL ALSO BE CHANGED BUT YOU ARE THE SAME,AND YOUR YEARS WILL NOT COME TO AN END.” 13But to which of the angels has He ever said, “SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND, UNTIL I MAKE YOUR ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR YOUR FEET”? 14Are they not all ministering spirits, sent out to render service for the sake of those who will inherit salvation?

    This verse comes from a chapter in Hebrews where the writer’s obvious premise was to demonstrate the absolute supremacy of the Son to his Jewish readers. It’s an apologetic work where the Hebrew OT texts are heavily drawn upon. This NT writer, like others, appeared to have no hesitancy at all applying to Yeshua OT quotations that exclusively reference YHWH. The OT quotations undoubtedly would have shocked the monotheistic Jews to the core, verses 10-12 especially so. It really is a christological tour de force, which reaches its climax in verses 8-12. It’s interesting to annotate the writer’s conveyances leading up to and immediately following verse 10. Here is a quick summary:

  • The “world” was made through Him (v 2)
  • He is said to be the radiance of the Father’s glory [Gr. doxa] (v 3)
  • He is the exact representation of the Father’s “hypostasis” [nature/substance] (v 3)
  • He “upholds [sustains] all things by the word of His power” (v 3)
  • The angels are commanded to worship Him [a sole prerogative of YHWH] (v 6)
  • He is called “God” (with the definite article) by the Father (v 8)
  • He is contrasted from false gods (v 11)
  • Is said to be immutable [an sole attribute of YHWH – e.g. Malachi 3:6] (v 12)

    ….and in amongst all these, what must have been startling affirmations (to the intended readers), we read this:

    And,”YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS;

    The writer of Hebrews was quoting Psalms 102:25 which was, of course, written about the Most High God, YHWH, as the context of the Psalm unmistakably bears out:

    Psalm 102:19-27
    19For He looked down from His holy height; From heaven the LORD gazed upon the earth, 20To hear the groaning of the prisoner, To set free those who were doomed to death, 21That men may tell of the name of the LORD in Zion And His praise in Jerusalem, 22When the peoples are gathered together, And the kingdoms, to serve the LORD. 23He has weakened my strength in the way; He has shortened my days. 24I say, “O my God, do not take me away in the midst of my days, Your years are throughout all generations. 25″Of old You founded the earth, And the heavens are the work of Your hands. 26″Even they will perish, but You endure; And all of them will wear out like a garment; Like clothing You will change them and they will be changed. 27″But You are the same, And Your years will not come to an end. 28″The children of Your servants will continue, And their descendants will be established before You.”

    Psalm 102:25 is a verse quite obviously written about YHWH, but according to the Hebrews’ writer it was, in reality, an utterance spoken by the Father to the Son. The Hebrew's writer affirms that it was the Father Himself Who personally addresses His Son as THE Creator of the Universe! So here we have a clear elucidation of the Son’s exact role in the creation. To me this shows that the descriptive language in the OT dealing with YHWH’s act of Creation is, in the mind of the author, perfectly APPLICABLE TO the Logos.

    Q) In what sense was Yeshua the Creator of the Heavens and Earth?

    A) In the sense that was attributed to YHWH in Psalms 102:25!


  • https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….;t=1278

    :)

    #60303
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Is 1.18,
    So the Son of God is God Himself?
    Not so.
    He is the Son of God.

    #60306
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 17 2007,22:00)

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,21:49)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 17 2007,20:34)

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,16:24)
    I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer an explanation. It's a true conundrum for those who deny Jesus is YHWH. One of many….


    But you're quite right t8, you did offer an explanation. I just didnlt think it was a good one. I should have written:

    “I put this to t8 and he couldn't offer a plausible explanation.”


    He he, that is better. :)

    What about saying he offered something that I didn't like or I didn't agree with?


    I disagreed with it because it was incorrect. If you were right I would have agreed with you.

    :)


    Well yes. What is the point?

    #60308
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ July 17 2007,22:06)

    Quote (t8 @ July 17 2007,21:46)
    Fair enough Isaiah. But it is pure speculation and should be held as an opinion only. I invite you to teach on the rooftops that which is written, but making absolute assumptions about Christ before the beginning isn't wise in my opinion. How can any man know if it isn't revealed?


    It's an opinion based on what scripture has revealed about Yeshua. He “existed in the form [Gr. morphe = essential nature] of God” (Phil 2:6) and “was [Gr. en = continuous existence] God”. Then ho Logos took on the form of a bond servant and became flesh…..

    What's not to get?


    Um, the whole Trinity thing. It developed over time and then those where infected by it couldn't see that the Father is the true God.

    The Trinity teaches eternal generation. Well what book teaches eternal generation (including the past – even before the beginning) of the son from the Father?

    What book teaches that the Holy Spirit as the 3rd person was with God in the beginning?

    It's all assumption Isaiah.

    Isaiah I think that you should have figured out by now that many people here have heard what you are teaching and see that it doesn't line up with scripture. Sure you can take a verse here and there and come up with a theory, but weighed against the who council of truth in scripture it is found wanting.

    If you teach a theory and it contradicts 100s of scriptures, then it doesn't matter how good you make it out to be, or how many times you mention the grammar really means this, or words like ontological mean that, people can simply judge for themselves because they have scripture and most people can grasp what is in scripture, even children can.

    So I guess what I am trying to say is that perhaps you need to buy gold refined in the fire, so you can become rich; and white clothes to wear, so you can cover your nakedness; and salve to put on your eyes, so you can see.

    Why don't you earnestly pray about it?

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