Trinity Debate – 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Subject:  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 disproves the Trinity Doctrine
Date: April 10 2007
Debaterst8  & Is 1: 18


t8

To prove that the Trinity Doctrine is the invention of man and not from scripture, I give 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 as a proof text.

24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.

25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.

26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death.

27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.

28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This piece of text is very interesting because it reveals God’s plan and will. This plan shows us the following:

 

  • At the end of this age, Jesus hands over the Kingdom to God the Father.
  • Before the end, Christ rules until all enemies are under his feet.
  • God puts all under Christ’s feet. All except God (as you would expect).
  • In the end, the son will be subject to God the Father, so that God can dwell in all.

 

The first point I want to talk about is the truth that all is/will be under Christ except God.

So from this text at least, we have a clear explanation as to redemptive plan of God through Christ and in explaining this, it actually says that all will be under his feet except God. So to take the great authority that Christ has to mean that he is God, is obviously incorrect when we read and understand 1 Corinthians 24-28.

The first century was a very different time to now and we should be careful to view their time through todays paradigm. For example, they didn’t have a Trinity doctrine back then and never used the word Trinity in scripture. The absence of such a teaching and usage in the bible is evident because the Trinity doctrine came into existence hundreds of years later.

This is why 1 Corinthians can clearly say that Jesus isn’t God with no hesitation. It doesn’t say that Jesus isn’t God in defense of those who say that he is, it simply says it innocently within a different context because saying that he was actually part of a Trinity God wasn’t an issue in that time.

“Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”

This particular verse points out that God himself put everything under Christ and God is identified earlier in verse 24 as the Father.

Now in these times and in times past the world is and has been drunk on the wine of Babylon and given this influence, I doubt that any Trinitarian in any century could write 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 from his own theology because he would have to write about God as being the Father and not the son.

A Trinitarian who wanted to convey the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and keep his theology intact would most likely say something like:
“….it is clear that this doesn’t include God the Father who put everything under God the son”. 

Even then, a Trinitarian probably wouldn’t write such a text because it would infringe on his version of co-equal.

But sadly for Trinitarians but joyfully for the truth, it says “…it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”.

God and Christ are 2 different identities in these verses, that is clear. It is also clear that God is identified as the Father and when read as such, the text makes perfect sense as you find with hundreds of other scriptures.

If Paul believed in the Trinitarian doctrine as Trinitarians must claim, then Paul must have had a lapse in memory that day, for he clearly talks of God and Christ as two. In fact Paul must have had a very bad memory problem, because he neglected to mention or teach the Trinity in any of his letters. If the Trinity Doctrine was true and a foundational truth that many claim, then we could also say that Paul was quite neglectful for not including it in his writings.

So perhaps it is possible that the Trinity Doctrine wasn’t something that Paul taught or believed at all. Perhaps that doctrine gained prominence when Athanasus and the Emperor Constantine did their works after the time of Paul.

Perhaps it is also possible that Paul knew what he was talking about when he said:

2 Thessalonians 2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 
&
Acts 20:29
29 I know that after I leave, savage wolves will come in among you and will not spare the flock.
30 Even from your own number men will arise and distort the truth in order to draw away disciples after them.
31 So be on your guard! Remember that for three years I never stopped warning each of you night and day with tears.




Is 1:18

1 Corinthians 15:24-28
24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This proof text is, I think, excellent evidence against modalism but could not be considered a solid refutation of the trinity doctrine. Here is why:1. Although two persons are mentioned in the text (“God the Father” and “Christ”) there is no mention of, or allusion to, their respective ontologies.2. Although one (Christ) is clearly portrayed in a position of submission to the other (God the Father), this is perfectly compatible with trinitarian dogma.

So again we have a proof text that has been porported to debunk the trinity doctrine but falls well short of the mark. Okay, I guess I should expand on both of these points:-

In expansion of point #1 I’ll write this:

Let’s be clear about this, the requisite evidence to disprove trinitarianism must strike at the foundation of what they believe, which, in a nut shell, is this:

YHWH is plurality within ontological unity. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct personages, each sharing the substance/essence/nature that makes God God.

Is there anything in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 text that challenged this statement? If so, I don’t recognise it. Yes, Paul certainly makes a distinction between the two persons of the Father and Son, which does appear to invalidate the modalist’s concept that the Father and Son are merely modes/manifestations of the same One divine personage, but it is not legitimate proof against the doctrine of the trinity. And let’s remember this, we are explicitly told in Phil. 2:6 that the Logos existed (perpetually) in the form (nature) of God, in John 1:1c that the Logos “was God”, and in Heb 1:3 that the Son’s essence/substance (Gr. “hypostasis”) is an exact representation of the Father’s, so on what grounds could it possibly be argued that His very being was inferior? It can’t.

So what of Paul’s use of the appellatives “God” (Gr. theos) to designate the Father and “Christ” (or “Son” in some MSS – e.g. textus receptus) to designate Yeshua? Well a cursory examination of Paul’s writings will reveal that usually “theos” is used by him in reference to the Father (but sometimes the Son) and “kurios” is usually used in reference to Yehsua (but also the Father). Other authors, like Luke for instance, also showed a remarkable ambiguity in the use of the term “kurios” relative to Jesus and the Father. Both theos and kurios are appropriate designations to identify the Most High God, YHWH, in scripture so it’s seems a perfectly legitimate literary mechanism to assign different terms (which both denote deity) to each person when both are in view. This would serve to distinguish the two individual persons of the Father and Son without invoking modalistic thought (as would occur if either theos or kurios was used for each) but without delineating them ontologically. So Paul’s ascription of theos to the Father in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 passage and “Christos” to Yeshua is not telling us that Yeshua is not “God” (which would be in direct contradiction to his explicit affirmation in Titus 2:13), it’s simply Paul’s way of distinguishing the persons of the Father and Son in the text. Nothing more.

In expansion of point #2 I’ll write this:

As I previously mentioned in the last proof text I responded to Yeshua is a man, born of woman and born under the law (Gal. 4:4). As a man subject to the law he MUST assume the role of subservient to the Father, His God. Had He not been subservient to His Father in accordance with the Law He would not have been the sinless Lamb of God, the sacrifice was meaningless and the sin dilemma remains in effect for mankind. So the submission demonstrated in NT scripture is a function of the incarnation (when deity put on humanity), not a comment of His intrinsic nature relative to His Father’s. Is this a valid refutation of the doctrine? No. Trinitarians, as far I can tell, affirm the humanity of Christ. The line of authority elucidated in 1 Cor 15:27-28 is a natural consequence of His incarnation, when he “became flesh” (John 1:14) it was to be forever….

Just in closing, it’s interesting to compare verse 28 with a passage that Paul penned in his letter to the Colossians (Col. 3:11)

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. (1 Corinthians 15:28)

cf.

a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all. (Colossians 3:11, cf. Eph. 1:23)

The grammar that was used of “God” in 1 Corinthians was also used of “Christ” in Colossians. I really like what C. H. Spurgeon wrote about this verse – “for Christ is not almost all, but all in all.” (source). Indeed Christ is all. Amen to that.


Discussion

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  • #55518
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,18:34)

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,18:28)
    To the Jews and God-fearing Gentiles of the day, there was only One God, and that God was the FATHER of Abraham.

    Being the good Jew that Thomas was, if he referred to Jesus as “God,” then he was calling him the God of Abraham!  He was calling him the Father.

    Wow, I can see how the oneness doctrine got started now…..


    not3

    And how is it that you think you know more about the God of Abraham than Jesus, John or Thomas?

    ???


    What? Good grief, I don't know more than anyone else. I'm sharing my opinion and what I believe is true. Isn't that what you are doing as well?

    Listen, it's confusing OK. You cannot have it both ways. Either you want Jesus to be God or you don't. To Thomas, “God” meant the Father. He was a Jew, and there are no records ANYWHERE of Jews believing that Jesus was God (meaning, the Father). If you know of such a record, please direct me to it.

    #55519

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,18:43)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,18:34)

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,18:28)
    To the Jews and God-fearing Gentiles of the day, there was only One God, and that God was the FATHER of Abraham.

    Being the good Jew that Thomas was, if he referred to Jesus as “God,” then he was calling him the God of Abraham!  He was calling him the Father.

    Wow, I can see how the oneness doctrine got started now…..


    not3

    And how is it that you think you know more about the God of Abraham than Jesus, John or Thomas?

    ???


    What?  Good grief, I don't know more than anyone else.  I'm sharing my opinion and what I believe is true.  Isn't that what you are doing as well?

    Listen, it's confusing OK.  You cannot have it both ways.  Either you want Jesus to be God or you don't.  To Thomas, “God” meant the Father.  He was a Jew, and there are no records ANYWHERE of Jews believing that Jesus was God (meaning, the Father).  If you know of such a record, please direct me to it.


    not3

    You are reading the most trusted and sure record there is that Jews believed that Jesus is God and yet not the Father.

    They believed Jesus is YHWH.

    Did Thomas make a mistake?

    Did Jesus or John correct him?

    John a devout Jew wrote John 1:1 and this passage!

    Others like Paul and Luke who wrote most of the NT claimed Jesus is God.

    So when I said…

    Quote

    And how is it that you think you know more about the God of Abraham than Jesus, John or Thomas?

    I am trying to say if you put your understanding above what is written or the testimony of the witnesses then you cast shadow on the most trusted record of God that we have.

    Who will you believe not3?

    The scriptures or your own understanding?

    In Love!

    ???

    #55523

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,18:32)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 14 2007,18:22)
    Hi W,
    Listen to Jesus teaching Thomas.
    Jn 14
    ” 5Thomas said to him, “Lord, we don't know where you are going, so how can we know the way?”
    6Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him.”

    8Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”

    9Jesus answered: “Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? 10Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves. 12I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. 13And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. 14You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.


    NH

    The problem that you have is Thomas didnt say…

    “MY LORD AND MY FATHER”, did he? ???

    Listen again…

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    :O

    The problem that you have is Thomas didnt say…

    “MY LORD AND MY FATHER”, did he? ???

    Listen again…

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    This passage seems to be so distressing to the Unitarians and Henotheist and Arians.

    If I was one I would be stressed to.

    :O

    #55524
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,18:32)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 14 2007,18:22)
    Hi W,
    Listen to Jesus teaching Thomas.
    Jn 14
    ” 5Thomas said to him, “Lord, we don't know where you are going, so how can we know the way?”
    6Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him.”

    8Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”

    9Jesus answered: “Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? 10Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves. 12I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. 13And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. 14You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.


    NH

    The problem that you have is Thomas didnt say…

    “MY LORD AND MY FATHER”, did he? ???

    Listen again…

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    :O


    Hi w,
    Read again
    “Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? 10Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves”
    Jn 20
    “17Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. “
    Jn 8
    ” 54Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God: “
    Still confused?

    #55532

    The problem that you have is Thomas didnt say…

    “MY LORD AND MY FATHER”, did he? ???

    Listen again…

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    This passage seems to be so distressing to the Unitarians and Henotheist and Arians.

    If I was one I would be stressed to.

    You say…

    Quote

    Still confused?

    Your inference again NH!

    Can't you just believe the scriptures for what they say? ???

    You are saying Thomas is calling Jesus the “Father”…

    *said unto him*, He didnt say “said unto them“!

    You are the one confused!

    Zech 7:11
    But they refused to hearken, and pulled away the shoulder, and stopped their ears, that they should not hear.

    #55537
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    If God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, and Jesus told us when they saw him they saw the Father too, then why do you think Thomas would not have addressed Jesus, the vessel of God when he said this?

    #55543
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,18:54)
    You are reading the most trusted and sure record there is that Jews believed that Jesus is God and yet not the Father.


    WJ,
    Humor me, just for a moment.

    Because there is no other record in the Bible of a Jew believing anyone else but the Father is God….and because Thomas supposedly called Jesus God (which no one else did), can you for certain (100% sure), tell me that there is no other way to interpret what Thomas said?

    #55574
    Cult Buster
    Participant

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 15 2007,13:31)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,18:54)
    You are reading the most trusted and sure record there is that Jews believed that Jesus is God and yet not the Father.


    WJ,
    Humor me, just for a moment.

    Because there is no other record in the Bible of a Jew believing anyone else but the Father is God….and because Thomas supposedly called Jesus God (which no one else did), can you for certain (100% sure), tell me that there is no other way to interpret what Thomas said?

    Worshipping Jesus

    Quote
    The problem that you have is Thomas didnt say…

    “MY LORD AND MY FATHER”, did he? ???

    Listen again…

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    This passage seems to be so distressing to the Unitarians and Henotheist and Arians.

    If I was one I would be stressed to.

    It is obvious that Thomas was speaking to Jesus when he exclaimed “My Lord and my God”

    I'm glad that I'm not a Unitarian, Henotheist or Arian. It must be very stressful for them on this forum having to always put the twist on scripture.

    Zec 7:11  But they refused to hearken, and pulled away the shoulder, and stopped their ears, that they should not hear.    :O

    #55580
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    You say
    “You are reading the most trusted and sure record there is that Jews believed that Jesus is God and yet not the Father.

    They believed Jesus is YHWH.”

    God is not multipartite.
    God is one.

    They knew that.

    #55582
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi CB,
    You say
    “It is obvious that Thomas was speaking to Jesus when he exclaimed “My Lord and my God””
    2Cor 5
    “God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself.”

    #55587
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Cult Buster @ June 15 2007,22:04)

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 15 2007,13:31)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,18:54)
    You are reading the most trusted and sure record there is that Jews believed that Jesus is God and yet not the Father.


    WJ,
    Humor me, just for a moment.

    Because there is no other record in the Bible of a Jew believing anyone else but the Father is God….and because Thomas supposedly called Jesus God (which no one else did), can you for certain (100% sure), tell me that there is no other way to interpret what Thomas said?

    Worshipping Jesus

    Quote
    The problem that you have is Thomas didnt say…

    “MY LORD AND MY FATHER”, did he? ???

    Listen again…

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    This passage seems to be so distressing to the Unitarians and Henotheist and Arians.

    If I was one I would be stressed to.

    It is obvious that Thomas was speaking to Jesus when he exclaimed “My Lord and my God”

    I'm glad that I'm not a Unitarian, Henotheist or Arian. It must be very stressful for them on this forum having to always put the twist on scripture.

    Zec 7:11  But they refused to hearken, and pulled away the shoulder, and stopped their ears, that they should not hear.    :O


    CB, if you will notice, it is WJ who needs to stress his points with different colored fonts and capital letters. We are simply asking reasonable questions.

    The fact of the matter is – you weren't there when Thomas made the so-called claim of calling Jesus God. You cannot know for sure what he meant. Therefore I would think it quite stressful for you to make Thomas your poster child when you are not 100% certain what he claims.

    #55589
    Is 1:18
    Participant

    Hi Not3,
    I think what WJ and CB are arguing here is that there are natural interpretations (i.e those supported by the grammar and context of the passage), and then there are those that are forced (i.e. made to conform to doctrinal axioms, in spite of the grammar and context). With regard to the John 20:28 declaration it's quite apparent from the grammar/context that Thomas was addressing Yeshua personally. That he was calling Him his God.

    :)

    #55591
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Is 1.18,
    Only if you did not understand his teaching to Thomas in Jn 14.

    #55607
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ June 16 2007,11:14)
    Hi Not3,
    I think what WJ and CB are arguing here is that there are natural interpretations (i.e those supported by the grammar and context of the passage), and then there are those that are forced (i.e. made to conform to doctrinal axioms, in spite of the grammar and context). With regard to the John 20:28 declaration it's quite apparent from the grammar/context that Thomas was addressing Yeshua personally. That he was calling Him his God.

    :)


    Isaiah,

    OK. Like I was saying to WJ – OK, so Thomas called Jesus God. Gotcha. But wait! Thomas was a good Jew. Jew's only believed that the Father was God. No Jew believed otherwise!!

    So if Thomas was calling Jesus God – then he was calling Jesus the Father.

    God=Father

    “My Lord, and my Father!”

    No? Why?

    All WJ could do was use different colors and bold and cap his text – saying the same thing over and over again. Do you have a different answer to my sincere question?

    #55621
    Anonymous
    Guest

    Not3in1

    Quote
    OK.  Like I was saying to WJ – OK, so Thomas called Jesus God.  Gotcha.  But wait!  Thomas was a good Jew.  Jew's only believed that the Father was God.  No Jew believed otherwise!!

    How do you know? That's not what the Bible says.

    Mar 14:61  But he held his peace, and answered nothing. Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?
    Mar 14:62  And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
    Mar 14:63  Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith, What need we any further witnesses?
    Mar 14:64  Ye have heard the blasphemy: what think ye? And they all condemned him to be guilty of death.

    Even the Jews understood that the Christ, the Son of the Blessed was God, that is why they accused Jesus of blasphemy.

    Jesus claimed to be the Son of the Blessed, whom the Jews understood to be God. The high priest accused Jesus of blasphemy, because He claimed to be the Christ, the Son of the Blessed.  When a man claims to be God it is blasphemy (John 10:33).

    Joh 10:33  The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

    Jesus could have said to the high priest, “I wasn't blaspheming, you misunderstood me, I am not claiming to be God.” But He didn't correct the high priest because Jesus was in fact asserting His deity.

    Jesus was accused many times of blasphemy, of making Himself God, but never once did He try to change their perception of Him claiming deity. Jesus was and is the self existent and eternal Jehovah God.

    And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. :O

    #55622
    Anonymous
    Guest

    not3in1

    Quote
    Listen, it's confusing OK.  You cannot have it both ways.  Either you want Jesus to be God or you don't.  To Thomas, “God” meant the Father.  He was a Jew, and there are no records ANYWHERE of Jews believing that Jesus was God (meaning, the Father).  If you know of such a record, please direct me to it.


    Hello not3in1. Where in the bible does it say that Thomas believed that God meant the Father?Apostle John believed that Jesus is God. Of course he didn't believe that Jesus was the Father. He just believed that Jesus is God.John 1:1  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John was a Jew, and he believed that Jesus was God.What do you think?

    #55623
    Anonymous
    Guest

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 15 2007,06:25)
    Hi W,
    If God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, and Jesus told us when they saw him they saw the Father too, then why do you think Thomas would not have addressed Jesus, the vessel of God when he said this?


    Hello Nick. If Jesus was just a vessel,don.t you think that Jesus would have rebuked Thomas for taking God's name in vain? If you were just a vessel for God's representation,would you feel comfortable if someone called you “my Lord and my God'? Did the disciple really see the Father physically or did they see the Father's character represented by Jesus?

    #55630
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi CB,
    You say
    “Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

    Jesus could have said to the high priest, “I wasn't blaspheming, you misunderstood me, I am not claiming to be God.” But He didn't correct the high priest because Jesus was in fact asserting His deity.

    Jesus was accused many times of blasphemy, of making Himself God, but never once did He try to change their perception of Him claiming deity. Jesus was and is the self existent and eternal Jehovah God.”

    You forget that in the same chapter, in the same context he did correct them.
    He told them he was rather the SON of God.

    Jn 10
    ” 36Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? “

    #55631
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (Guest @ June 16 2007,23:50)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 15 2007,06:25)
    Hi W,
    If God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, and Jesus told us when they saw him they saw the Father too, then why do you think Thomas would not have addressed Jesus, the vessel of God when he said this?


    Hello Nick. If Jesus was just a vessel,don.t you think that Jesus would have rebuked Thomas for taking God's name in vain? If you were just a vessel for God's representation,would you feel comfortable if someone called you “my Lord and my God'? Did the disciple really see the Father physically or did they see the Father's character represented by Jesus?


    Hi G,
    What is to correct?
    He had taught Thomas the truth.
    Thomas had listened as you should too.
    Jn 14

    5Thomas saith unto him, Lord, we know not whither thou goest; and how can we know the way?

    6Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

    7If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.

    8Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.

    9Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?

    10Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

    11Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.

    #55638
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 17 2007,06:50)
    Hi CB,
    You say
    “Joh 10:33  The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

    Jesus could have said to the high priest, “I wasn't blaspheming, you misunderstood me, I am not claiming to be God.” But He didn't correct the high priest because Jesus was in fact asserting His deity.

    Jesus was accused many times of blasphemy, of making Himself God, but never once did He try to change their perception of Him claiming deity. Jesus was and is the self existent and eternal Jehovah God.”

    You forget that in the same chapter, in the same context he did correct them.
    He told them he was rather the SON of God.

    Jn 10
    ”  36Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? “


    CB (or are you “Guest” now?)

    What Nick said – ditto.

    Being the Son of God and being God are not the same thing. Jesus only became God a few hundred years after he went to be with the Father. He certainly didn't sign up for that job and he wasn't in that capacity while on earth either. He pointed us to the one true God!

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