Trinity Debate – 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Subject:  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 disproves the Trinity Doctrine
Date: April 10 2007
Debaterst8  & Is 1: 18


t8

To prove that the Trinity Doctrine is the invention of man and not from scripture, I give 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 as a proof text.

24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.

25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.

26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death.

27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.

28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This piece of text is very interesting because it reveals God’s plan and will. This plan shows us the following:

 

  • At the end of this age, Jesus hands over the Kingdom to God the Father.
  • Before the end, Christ rules until all enemies are under his feet.
  • God puts all under Christ’s feet. All except God (as you would expect).
  • In the end, the son will be subject to God the Father, so that God can dwell in all.

 

The first point I want to talk about is the truth that all is/will be under Christ except God.

So from this text at least, we have a clear explanation as to redemptive plan of God through Christ and in explaining this, it actually says that all will be under his feet except God. So to take the great authority that Christ has to mean that he is God, is obviously incorrect when we read and understand 1 Corinthians 24-28.

The first century was a very different time to now and we should be careful to view their time through todays paradigm. For example, they didn’t have a Trinity doctrine back then and never used the word Trinity in scripture. The absence of such a teaching and usage in the bible is evident because the Trinity doctrine came into existence hundreds of years later.

This is why 1 Corinthians can clearly say that Jesus isn’t God with no hesitation. It doesn’t say that Jesus isn’t God in defense of those who say that he is, it simply says it innocently within a different context because saying that he was actually part of a Trinity God wasn’t an issue in that time.

“Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”

This particular verse points out that God himself put everything under Christ and God is identified earlier in verse 24 as the Father.

Now in these times and in times past the world is and has been drunk on the wine of Babylon and given this influence, I doubt that any Trinitarian in any century could write 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 from his own theology because he would have to write about God as being the Father and not the son.

A Trinitarian who wanted to convey the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and keep his theology intact would most likely say something like:
“….it is clear that this doesn’t include God the Father who put everything under God the son”. 

Even then, a Trinitarian probably wouldn’t write such a text because it would infringe on his version of co-equal.

But sadly for Trinitarians but joyfully for the truth, it says “…it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”.

God and Christ are 2 different identities in these verses, that is clear. It is also clear that God is identified as the Father and when read as such, the text makes perfect sense as you find with hundreds of other scriptures.

If Paul believed in the Trinitarian doctrine as Trinitarians must claim, then Paul must have had a lapse in memory that day, for he clearly talks of God and Christ as two. In fact Paul must have had a very bad memory problem, because he neglected to mention or teach the Trinity in any of his letters. If the Trinity Doctrine was true and a foundational truth that many claim, then we could also say that Paul was quite neglectful for not including it in his writings.

So perhaps it is possible that the Trinity Doctrine wasn’t something that Paul taught or believed at all. Perhaps that doctrine gained prominence when Athanasus and the Emperor Constantine did their works after the time of Paul.

Perhaps it is also possible that Paul knew what he was talking about when he said:

2 Thessalonians 2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 
&
Acts 20:29
29 I know that after I leave, savage wolves will come in among you and will not spare the flock.
30 Even from your own number men will arise and distort the truth in order to draw away disciples after them.
31 So be on your guard! Remember that for three years I never stopped warning each of you night and day with tears.




Is 1:18

1 Corinthians 15:24-28
24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This proof text is, I think, excellent evidence against modalism but could not be considered a solid refutation of the trinity doctrine. Here is why:1. Although two persons are mentioned in the text (“God the Father” and “Christ”) there is no mention of, or allusion to, their respective ontologies.2. Although one (Christ) is clearly portrayed in a position of submission to the other (God the Father), this is perfectly compatible with trinitarian dogma.

So again we have a proof text that has been porported to debunk the trinity doctrine but falls well short of the mark. Okay, I guess I should expand on both of these points:-

In expansion of point #1 I’ll write this:

Let’s be clear about this, the requisite evidence to disprove trinitarianism must strike at the foundation of what they believe, which, in a nut shell, is this:

YHWH is plurality within ontological unity. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct personages, each sharing the substance/essence/nature that makes God God.

Is there anything in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 text that challenged this statement? If so, I don’t recognise it. Yes, Paul certainly makes a distinction between the two persons of the Father and Son, which does appear to invalidate the modalist’s concept that the Father and Son are merely modes/manifestations of the same One divine personage, but it is not legitimate proof against the doctrine of the trinity. And let’s remember this, we are explicitly told in Phil. 2:6 that the Logos existed (perpetually) in the form (nature) of God, in John 1:1c that the Logos “was God”, and in Heb 1:3 that the Son’s essence/substance (Gr. “hypostasis”) is an exact representation of the Father’s, so on what grounds could it possibly be argued that His very being was inferior? It can’t.

So what of Paul’s use of the appellatives “God” (Gr. theos) to designate the Father and “Christ” (or “Son” in some MSS – e.g. textus receptus) to designate Yeshua? Well a cursory examination of Paul’s writings will reveal that usually “theos” is used by him in reference to the Father (but sometimes the Son) and “kurios” is usually used in reference to Yehsua (but also the Father). Other authors, like Luke for instance, also showed a remarkable ambiguity in the use of the term “kurios” relative to Jesus and the Father. Both theos and kurios are appropriate designations to identify the Most High God, YHWH, in scripture so it’s seems a perfectly legitimate literary mechanism to assign different terms (which both denote deity) to each person when both are in view. This would serve to distinguish the two individual persons of the Father and Son without invoking modalistic thought (as would occur if either theos or kurios was used for each) but without delineating them ontologically. So Paul’s ascription of theos to the Father in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 passage and “Christos” to Yeshua is not telling us that Yeshua is not “God” (which would be in direct contradiction to his explicit affirmation in Titus 2:13), it’s simply Paul’s way of distinguishing the persons of the Father and Son in the text. Nothing more.

In expansion of point #2 I’ll write this:

As I previously mentioned in the last proof text I responded to Yeshua is a man, born of woman and born under the law (Gal. 4:4). As a man subject to the law he MUST assume the role of subservient to the Father, His God. Had He not been subservient to His Father in accordance with the Law He would not have been the sinless Lamb of God, the sacrifice was meaningless and the sin dilemma remains in effect for mankind. So the submission demonstrated in NT scripture is a function of the incarnation (when deity put on humanity), not a comment of His intrinsic nature relative to His Father’s. Is this a valid refutation of the doctrine? No. Trinitarians, as far I can tell, affirm the humanity of Christ. The line of authority elucidated in 1 Cor 15:27-28 is a natural consequence of His incarnation, when he “became flesh” (John 1:14) it was to be forever….

Just in closing, it’s interesting to compare verse 28 with a passage that Paul penned in his letter to the Colossians (Col. 3:11)

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. (1 Corinthians 15:28)

cf.

a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all. (Colossians 3:11, cf. Eph. 1:23)

The grammar that was used of “God” in 1 Corinthians was also used of “Christ” in Colossians. I really like what C. H. Spurgeon wrote about this verse – “for Christ is not almost all, but all in all.” (source). Indeed Christ is all. Amen to that.


Discussion

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  • #55372

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 12 2007,11:38)
    Hi W,
    One Spirit.
    The ONE Spirit ever proceeds from God through Christ to us.


    NH

    Thanks!

    You just proved my point.

    The Father and Jesus is the selfsame spirit!

    Therefore Jesus is God in the flesh!

    1 Cor 12:11
    But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will.

    Rev 22:11
    And he shewed me a pure river of water of life, clear as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb.

    Phil 1:19
    For I know that this shall turn to my salvation through your prayer, and the supply of the Spirit of Jesus Christ,

    2 Cor 3:17
    Now the Lord(Kurios) is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord(Kurios) is, there is liberty.

    1 Cor 3:16
    Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?

    2 Cor 13:5
    Examine yourselves, whether ye be in the faith; prove your own selves. Know ye not your own selves, how that Jesus (Yeshua)Christ is in you, except ye be reprobates?

    Rom 8:
    9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
    10  And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

    :)

    #55381
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    God was indeed manifest in the flesh of Jesus.

    Jn14
    “8Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.

    9Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?

    10Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

    11Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake. “
    But the vessel was not also the contents.

    #55384

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 13 2007,07:49)
    Hi W,
    God was indeed manifest in the flesh of Jesus.

    Jn14
    “8Philip saith unto him, Lord, show us the Father, and it sufficeth us.

    9Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?

    10Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

    11Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake. “
    But the vessel was not also the contents.


    Amen!

    And later on Thomas confirmed this by saying…

    “My Lord and MY God”!

    I wonder why Jesus nor John corrected him?

    :D

    #55385
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Men are body, soul and Spirit[1Thess 5].
    Christ was a man- body, soul and spirit.
    The vessel of man is designed to hold the Spirit of God.
    Many vessels instead contain evil spirits which Jesus and the apostles cleansed men from.
    At the Jordan Christ was filled with the Spirit of God.
    Like us he had two spirits-his own and the Holy Spirit.
    Rom 8
    “16The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God: “

    As with us[ecc12] own spirit left him at death.

    Matt 27
    “50Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.”

    His own spirit is not the Spirit of Christ-that Spirit is the Holy Spirit- which he shares with his body on earth.

    #55388

    NH

    You engage in inference again.

    You say…

    Quote
    At the Jordan Christ was filled with the Spirit of God.

    Where is this written?

    You say…

    Quote
    His own spirit is not the Spirit of Christ-that Spirit is the Holy Spirit- which he shares with his body on earth.

    HUH? ???

    Where is this written?

    ???

    #55390
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Lk3
    ” 21Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also being baptized, and praying, the heaven was opened,

    22And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased. “
    Lk 4
    ” 1And Jesus being full of the Holy Ghost returned from Jordan, and was led by the Spirit into the wilderness, “

    Do you not yet share in the Spirit of Christ?
    You should be blessed in the Holy Spirit if you are in Christ.
    Those who do not have the Spirit of Christ are not of him.[Rom8]

    #55431

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 13 2007,09:35)
    Hi W,
    Lk3
    ” 21Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also being baptized, and praying, the heaven was opened,

    22And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased. “
    Lk 4
    ” 1And Jesus being full of the Holy Ghost returned from Jordan, and was led by the Spirit into the wilderness, “

    Do you not yet share in the Spirit of Christ?
    You should be blessed in the Holy Spirit if you are in Christ.
    Those who do not have the Spirit of Christ are not of him.[Rom8]


    NH

    Still on the 2 Spirits again.

    The Spirit of Christ and the Holy Spirit!

    There is “One Spirit”!

    :O

    #55435
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    No,
    Christ the man had his own human spirit which left him when he died.
    Mt 27.50.
    That is not the Spirit of Christ.

    #55449
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 13 2007,09:15)
    You engage in inference again.


    The Trinity doctrine isn't inference is it?
    3 persons are a HIM, that isn't inference is it?
    All 3 members are co-equal isn't inference is it?
    Jesus is/was a dual natured being isn't inference either, is it?

    No of course not.

    :D :p

    #55472

    Quote (t8 @ June 13 2007,23:07)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 13 2007,09:15)
    You engage in inference again.


    The Trinity doctrine isn't inference is it?
    3 persons are a HIM, that isn't inference is it?
    All 3 members are co-equal isn't inference is it?
    Jesus is/was a dual natured being isn't inference either, is it?

    No of course not.

    :D  :p


    t8

    Because you cant understand the truth of the Trinity in the Bible dosnt make it not so.

    Isaiah 1:18 has just blasted your Henothiestic view all to _ _ _ _!

    Your view that there is more than one “divine” being called “a” god or gods is pure speculation and inference and totally unscriptural.

    Read um and weep t8. For your site is full of false doctrine.

    There is only “One divine Being” that created the universe.

    Isaiah 43:10-11
    10Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me. 11I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.

    Isaiah 45:5,14,18,21,22
    5I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:… 14Thus saith the LORD, The labour of Egypt, and merchandise of Ethiopia and of the Sabeans, men of stature, shall come over unto thee, and they shall be thine: they shall come after thee; in chains they shall come over, and they shall fall down unto thee, they shall make supplication unto thee, saying, Surely God is in thee; and there is none else, there is no God… 18For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the LORD; and there is none else…. 21Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me….. 22Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else.

    Isaiah 44:24
    Thus says the LORD, your Redeemer, and the one who formed you from the womb,
    I, the LORD, am the maker of all things,
    Stretching out the heavens by Myself

    And spreading out the earth all alone,

    Job 9:5-8
    5″It is God who removes the mountains, they know not how,
    When He overturns them in His anger;
    6Who shakes the earth out of its place,
    And its pillars tremble;
    7Who commands the sun not to shine,
    And sets a seal upon the stars;
    8 Who alone stretches out the heavens
    And tramples down the waves of the sea;

    John 1:1-4
    1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
    2The same was in the beginning with God.
    3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

    t8. How do you explain this? Your interpretation of John 1:-3 goes entirely against 100s of qualified scholars. You have created a real delima for yourself in scripture.

    There is only one “Divine Being” that created all things.

    Do you not believe the words of YHWH?

    You should throw away your pride and believe the Prophets that penned the words of YHWH and repent of your false doctrine.

    Then the glorious light of the Gospel of Christ, oops, I mean Gospel of God, well you know what I mean, there is no difference is there ???, anyway if you repent it will shine unto you.

    :)

    #55473

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 13 2007,18:33)
    Hi W,
    No,
    Christ the man had his own human spirit which left him when he died.
    Mt 27.50.
    That is not the Spirit of Christ.


    NH

    So now we have a “Spirit of Christ” that left him,

    but there is another “Spirit of Christ” that didnt leave him?

    ??? ??? ???

    #55477
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 13 2007,08:50)
    And later on Thomas confirmed this by saying…

    “My Lord and MY God”!


    If God is One, and God is the Father, when Thomas said, “…and my God.” Did he really say, “….and my Father.”

    ?

    #55480
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,12:03)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 13 2007,18:33)
    Hi W,
    No,
    Christ the man had his own human spirit which left him when he died.
    Mt 27.50.
    That is not the Spirit of Christ.


    NH

    So now we have a “Spirit of Christ” that left him,

    but there is another “Spirit of Christ” that didnt leave him?

    ???  ???  ???


    Hi W,
    Do you argue with Scripture?
    Mt27
    ” 50And Jesus cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit. “
    Lk23
    “46And Jesus, crying out with a loud voice, said, “Father, INTO YOUR HANDS I COMMIT MY SPIRIT.” Having said this, He breathed His last.”
    Jn19
    ” 30Therefore when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, “It is finished!” And He bowed His head and gave up His spirit. “

    Surely even though you may have the Holy Spirit you also have your own spirit?[Rom8].
    Christ is like us.

    #55481

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,12:39)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 13 2007,08:50)
    And later on Thomas confirmed this by saying…

    “My Lord and MY God”!


    If God is One, and God is the Father, when Thomas said, “…and my God.”  Did he really say, “….and my Father.”

    ?


    not3

    Look for yourself and judge for yourself…

    Jn 20:
    [28]And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.
    [29] Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
    [30] And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
    [31] But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

    Notice he “said unto him”. Also notice Jesus blesses him and dos'nt correct him of what could be considered blasphemy, and John the witness didnt correct him and yet claims this incident was a sign.

    This same witness John also wrote Jn 1:1 and wrote John 6 which claims Jesus came down from heaven.

    Unambiguous if you ask me!

    Blessings

    :)

    #55494
    Not3in1
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,13:03)

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,12:39)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 13 2007,08:50)
    And later on Thomas confirmed this by saying…

    “My Lord and MY God”!


    If God is One, and God is the Father, when Thomas said, “…and my God.”  Did he really say, “….and my Father.”

    ?


    not3

    Look for yourself and judge for yourself…

    Jn 20:
    [28]And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.
    [29] Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
    [30] And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
    [31] But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

    Notice he “said unto him”. Also notice Jesus blesses him and dos'nt correct him of what could be considered blasphemy, and John the witness didnt correct him and yet claims this incident was a sign.

    This same witness John also wrote Jn 1:1 and wrote John 6 which claims Jesus came down from heaven.

    Unambiguous if you ask me!

    Blessings

    :)


    OK, I followed you. But you still didn't answer my question, really.

    If Thomas called Jesus his Lord and God – did he mean that Jesus was also the Father? For everyone knew that God was the Father.

    “My Lord, and my Father!” Could it be? If not, why?

    #55504

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,16:05)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 14 2007,13:03)

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,12:39)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ June 13 2007,08:50)
    And later on Thomas confirmed this by saying…

    “My Lord and MY God”!


    If God is One, and God is the Father, when Thomas said, “…and my God.”  Did he really say, “….and my Father.”

    ?


    not3

    Look for yourself and judge for yourself…

    Jn 20:
    [28]And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.
    [29] Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
    [30] And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
    [31] But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

    Notice he “said unto him”. Also notice Jesus blesses him and dos'nt correct him of what could be considered blasphemy, and John the witness didnt correct him and yet claims this incident was a sign.

    This same witness John also wrote Jn 1:1 and wrote John 6 which claims Jesus came down from heaven.

    Unambiguous if you ask me!

    Blessings

    :)


    OK, I followed you.  But you still didn't answer my question, really.

    If Thomas called Jesus his Lord and God – did he mean that Jesus was also the Father?  For everyone knew that God was the Father.

    “My Lord, and my Father!” Could it be?  If not, why?


    not3

    No! Because Jesus spent much of his ministry speaking of the Father.

    I dont think Thomas had them confused!

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    He didnt say… “said unto them“!

    John knew exactly what he saw and heard.

    :)

    #55508
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Listen to Jesus teaching Thomas.
    Jn 14
    ” 5Thomas said to him, “Lord, we don't know where you are going, so how can we know the way?”
    6Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him.”

    8Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”

    9Jesus answered: “Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? 10Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves. 12I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. 13And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. 14You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.

    #55511
    Not3in1
    Participant

    To the Jews and God-fearing Gentiles of the day, there was only One God, and that God was the FATHER of Abraham.

    Being the good Jew that Thomas was, if he referred to Jesus as “God,” then he was calling him the God of Abraham! He was calling him the Father.

    Wow, I can see how the oneness doctrine got started now…..

    #55513

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ June 14 2007,18:22)
    Hi W,
    Listen to Jesus teaching Thomas.
    Jn 14
    ” 5Thomas said to him, “Lord, we don't know where you are going, so how can we know the way?”
    6Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. 7If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on, you do know him and have seen him.”

    8Philip said, “Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us.”

    9Jesus answered: “Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? 10Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves. 12I tell you the truth, anyone who has faith in me will do what I have been doing. He will do even greater things than these, because I am going to the Father. 13And I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Son may bring glory to the Father. 14You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it.


    NH

    The problem that you have is Thomas didnt say…

    “MY LORD AND MY FATHER”, did he? ???

    Listen again…

    Jn 20:
    28 And Thomas answered and *said unto him*, My Lord and my God.

    :O

    #55514

    Quote (Not3in1 @ June 14 2007,18:28)
    To the Jews and God-fearing Gentiles of the day, there was only One God, and that God was the FATHER of Abraham.

    Being the good Jew that Thomas was, if he referred to Jesus as “God,” then he was calling him the God of Abraham!  He was calling him the Father.

    Wow, I can see how the oneness doctrine got started now…..


    not3

    And how is it that you think you know more about the God of Abraham than Jesus, John or Thomas?

    ???

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