Trinity Debate – 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Subject:  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 disproves the Trinity Doctrine
Date: April 10 2007
Debaterst8  & Is 1: 18


t8

To prove that the Trinity Doctrine is the invention of man and not from scripture, I give 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 as a proof text.

24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.

25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.

26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death.

27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.

28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This piece of text is very interesting because it reveals God’s plan and will. This plan shows us the following:

 

  • At the end of this age, Jesus hands over the Kingdom to God the Father.
  • Before the end, Christ rules until all enemies are under his feet.
  • God puts all under Christ’s feet. All except God (as you would expect).
  • In the end, the son will be subject to God the Father, so that God can dwell in all.

 

The first point I want to talk about is the truth that all is/will be under Christ except God.

So from this text at least, we have a clear explanation as to redemptive plan of God through Christ and in explaining this, it actually says that all will be under his feet except God. So to take the great authority that Christ has to mean that he is God, is obviously incorrect when we read and understand 1 Corinthians 24-28.

The first century was a very different time to now and we should be careful to view their time through todays paradigm. For example, they didn’t have a Trinity doctrine back then and never used the word Trinity in scripture. The absence of such a teaching and usage in the bible is evident because the Trinity doctrine came into existence hundreds of years later.

This is why 1 Corinthians can clearly say that Jesus isn’t God with no hesitation. It doesn’t say that Jesus isn’t God in defense of those who say that he is, it simply says it innocently within a different context because saying that he was actually part of a Trinity God wasn’t an issue in that time.

“Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”

This particular verse points out that God himself put everything under Christ and God is identified earlier in verse 24 as the Father.

Now in these times and in times past the world is and has been drunk on the wine of Babylon and given this influence, I doubt that any Trinitarian in any century could write 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 from his own theology because he would have to write about God as being the Father and not the son.

A Trinitarian who wanted to convey the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and keep his theology intact would most likely say something like:
“….it is clear that this doesn’t include God the Father who put everything under God the son”. 

Even then, a Trinitarian probably wouldn’t write such a text because it would infringe on his version of co-equal.

But sadly for Trinitarians but joyfully for the truth, it says “…it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”.

God and Christ are 2 different identities in these verses, that is clear. It is also clear that God is identified as the Father and when read as such, the text makes perfect sense as you find with hundreds of other scriptures.

If Paul believed in the Trinitarian doctrine as Trinitarians must claim, then Paul must have had a lapse in memory that day, for he clearly talks of God and Christ as two. In fact Paul must have had a very bad memory problem, because he neglected to mention or teach the Trinity in any of his letters. If the Trinity Doctrine was true and a foundational truth that many claim, then we could also say that Paul was quite neglectful for not including it in his writings.

So perhaps it is possible that the Trinity Doctrine wasn’t something that Paul taught or believed at all. Perhaps that doctrine gained prominence when Athanasus and the Emperor Constantine did their works after the time of Paul.

Perhaps it is also possible that Paul knew what he was talking about when he said:

2 Thessalonians 2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 
&
Acts 20:29
29 I know that after I leave, savage wolves will come in among you and will not spare the flock.
30 Even from your own number men will arise and distort the truth in order to draw away disciples after them.
31 So be on your guard! Remember that for three years I never stopped warning each of you night and day with tears.




Is 1:18

1 Corinthians 15:24-28
24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This proof text is, I think, excellent evidence against modalism but could not be considered a solid refutation of the trinity doctrine. Here is why:1. Although two persons are mentioned in the text (“God the Father” and “Christ”) there is no mention of, or allusion to, their respective ontologies.2. Although one (Christ) is clearly portrayed in a position of submission to the other (God the Father), this is perfectly compatible with trinitarian dogma.

So again we have a proof text that has been porported to debunk the trinity doctrine but falls well short of the mark. Okay, I guess I should expand on both of these points:-

In expansion of point #1 I’ll write this:

Let’s be clear about this, the requisite evidence to disprove trinitarianism must strike at the foundation of what they believe, which, in a nut shell, is this:

YHWH is plurality within ontological unity. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct personages, each sharing the substance/essence/nature that makes God God.

Is there anything in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 text that challenged this statement? If so, I don’t recognise it. Yes, Paul certainly makes a distinction between the two persons of the Father and Son, which does appear to invalidate the modalist’s concept that the Father and Son are merely modes/manifestations of the same One divine personage, but it is not legitimate proof against the doctrine of the trinity. And let’s remember this, we are explicitly told in Phil. 2:6 that the Logos existed (perpetually) in the form (nature) of God, in John 1:1c that the Logos “was God”, and in Heb 1:3 that the Son’s essence/substance (Gr. “hypostasis”) is an exact representation of the Father’s, so on what grounds could it possibly be argued that His very being was inferior? It can’t.

So what of Paul’s use of the appellatives “God” (Gr. theos) to designate the Father and “Christ” (or “Son” in some MSS – e.g. textus receptus) to designate Yeshua? Well a cursory examination of Paul’s writings will reveal that usually “theos” is used by him in reference to the Father (but sometimes the Son) and “kurios” is usually used in reference to Yehsua (but also the Father). Other authors, like Luke for instance, also showed a remarkable ambiguity in the use of the term “kurios” relative to Jesus and the Father. Both theos and kurios are appropriate designations to identify the Most High God, YHWH, in scripture so it’s seems a perfectly legitimate literary mechanism to assign different terms (which both denote deity) to each person when both are in view. This would serve to distinguish the two individual persons of the Father and Son without invoking modalistic thought (as would occur if either theos or kurios was used for each) but without delineating them ontologically. So Paul’s ascription of theos to the Father in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 passage and “Christos” to Yeshua is not telling us that Yeshua is not “God” (which would be in direct contradiction to his explicit affirmation in Titus 2:13), it’s simply Paul’s way of distinguishing the persons of the Father and Son in the text. Nothing more.

In expansion of point #2 I’ll write this:

As I previously mentioned in the last proof text I responded to Yeshua is a man, born of woman and born under the law (Gal. 4:4). As a man subject to the law he MUST assume the role of subservient to the Father, His God. Had He not been subservient to His Father in accordance with the Law He would not have been the sinless Lamb of God, the sacrifice was meaningless and the sin dilemma remains in effect for mankind. So the submission demonstrated in NT scripture is a function of the incarnation (when deity put on humanity), not a comment of His intrinsic nature relative to His Father’s. Is this a valid refutation of the doctrine? No. Trinitarians, as far I can tell, affirm the humanity of Christ. The line of authority elucidated in 1 Cor 15:27-28 is a natural consequence of His incarnation, when he “became flesh” (John 1:14) it was to be forever….

Just in closing, it’s interesting to compare verse 28 with a passage that Paul penned in his letter to the Colossians (Col. 3:11)

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. (1 Corinthians 15:28)

cf.

a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all. (Colossians 3:11, cf. Eph. 1:23)

The grammar that was used of “God” in 1 Corinthians was also used of “Christ” in Colossians. I really like what C. H. Spurgeon wrote about this verse – “for Christ is not almost all, but all in all.” (source). Indeed Christ is all. Amen to that.


Discussion

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  • #53021
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    To WorshippingJesus.

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 24 2007,23:29)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 20 2007,20:30)

    Quote (t8 @ May 20 2007,20:19)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 21 2007,15:03)
    For me it's more straight forward than that. I talk to Him.


    Hi Is 1:18.

    Don't forget the others too.

    When Trinitarians pray to YHWH, they pray to a HIM and yet can talk to three persons.

    The ironic thing here is that they should pray to THEM if they wish to be grammatically correct. Otherwise I can only conclude that they pray to the one substance, which seems rather odd don't you think?

    Surely, when we talk to a person (human), we talk to them and not their substance or nature. So if we talk to God, should we talk to his substance? If not, then I think you should at least refer to the Trinity as THEM, because they are after all 3 so-called persons.

    That would to me be more honest, than praying to 3 and addressing them as 1 which seems designed to appeal to the language found in scripture about God being one and God being a HIM.

    It actually comes across as deceptive to me. God is triune, but we will address him as HIM so that we are not accused of polytheism.

    The only excuse I can see for calling God HIM from a Trinitarian perspective is that they address the substance. But that seems very odd as I said before and it also seems to border on New Age philosophy in that God is a substance or energy.


    :p :p :p

    T8,
    No body prays to a substance. Kindly cease and desist from constantly using the straw man fallacy. It's childish and impresses no one. Be a grown up t8.


    Is 1:18

    Amen.

    Foolish logic of an Arian.

    Definition of Arian… “one who does not believes Jesus is God in the flesh.

    :)


    Actually it is the logic of Trinitarianism because they pray to a HIM and yet are talking to the Father, Son, and Spirit.

    They talk to 3 and refer to him as 1. But the only part of God that is 1 according to you is the substance.

    I am trying to guess the logic behind your confusing doctrine that is all.

    It is nothing to do with Arianism, Donald Duckism, or any ism apart from Trintarianism.

    :)

    #53024

    Quote (t8 @ May 24 2007,09:45)
    To WorshippingJesus.

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 24 2007,23:29)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 20 2007,20:30)

    Quote (t8 @ May 20 2007,20:19)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 21 2007,15:03)
    For me it's more straight forward than that. I talk to Him.


    Hi Is 1:18.

    Don't forget the others too.

    When Trinitarians pray to YHWH, they pray to a HIM and yet can talk to three persons.

    The ironic thing here is that they should pray to THEM if they wish to be grammatically correct. Otherwise I can only conclude that they pray to the one substance, which seems rather odd don't you think?

    Surely, when we talk to a person (human), we talk to them and not their substance or nature. So if we talk to God, should we talk to his substance? If not, then I think you should at least refer to the Trinity as THEM, because they are after all 3 so-called persons.

    That would to me be more honest, than praying to 3 and addressing them as 1 which seems designed to appeal to the language found in scripture about God being one and God being a HIM.

    It actually comes across as deceptive to me. God is triune, but we will address him as HIM so that we are not accused of polytheism.

    The only excuse I can see for calling God HIM from a Trinitarian perspective is that they address the substance. But that seems very odd as I said before and it also seems to border on New Age  philosophy in that God is a substance or energy.


    :p  :p  :p  

    T8,
    No body prays to a substance. Kindly cease and desist from constantly using the straw man fallacy. It's childish and impresses no one. Be a grown up t8.


    Is 1:18

    Amen.

    Foolish logic of an Arian.

    Definition of Arian… “one who does not believes Jesus is God in the flesh.

    :)


    Actually it is the logic of Trinitarianism because they pray to a HIM and yet are talking to the Father, Son, and Spirit.

    They talk to 3 and refer to him as 1. But the only part of God that is 1 according to you is the substance.

    I am trying to guess the logic behind your confusing doctrine that is all.

    It is nothing to do with Arianism, Donald Duckism, or any ism apart from Trintarianism.

    :)


    t8

    My logic is scripturally based!

    How about yours?

    Do you claim the following verses as your own?

    1 Cor 1:2
    Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all * in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lordboth theirs and ours*

    1 Jn 1:3
    *That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship (koinonia) with us: and truly our fellowship (koinonia) is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ*.

    koinonia Greek; which means…

    1) fellowship, association, community, communion, joint participation, intercourse
    a) the share which one has in anything, participation
    b) intercourse, fellowship, intimacy

    Do you see anything in this verse that makes fellowshipping with the Father any different than with the Son?

    Or in the following verse speaking of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit?

    2 Cor 13:14
    *The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion (koinonia) of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen*

    Tell me t8, how do you have this fellowship with the Father and the Son and the Spirit without prayer?

    Or maybe you could give me your definition of prayer, since it seems that there are those who want to redifine the term.

    What is the difference t8 in you “talking to the Father” or “praying to him”?

    I am trying to understand the Logic of how you can approach the Father or have a relationship with him without the Son?

    And if you do how does that play into Hebrew scriptures that God is by himself and there is no other?

    My Bible says those who are called and sanctified call on the name of Jesus!!!

    #53027
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Do you fellowship with Christians?

    #53037
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 25 2007,05:23)
    t8

    My logic is scripturally based!

    How about yours?


    To WJ.

    So you say.

    But is this an admission that it is not grammatically correct?

    #53038
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    To WJ.

    As for the other scriptures you quote, yes of course I agree with them.

    I have fellowship with God, Jesus, and God's spirit.

    The point here is that once again we have God and Jesus identified as 2 different identities.

    So the scriptures you quote actually reinforce the truth that for believers, there is one God the Father. Not one God the Father, Son, Spirit, as you teach.

    Trinitarianism should interpret God, Jesus, Spirit, as Father, Son, Spirit, son, Spirit. That makes 5 (a Quinity). So it is clear that God is the Father.

    Quote
    *The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion (koinonia) of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen*

    #53039

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 24 2007,11:05)
    Hi W,
    Do you fellowship with Christians?


    NH

    Yes I do!

    But I dont “spiritually call” on them, do you?

    You can not have fellowship with the Father or the Son apart from “Spritually calling” on them, this is prayer!

    Now if you “spiritually call” on Jesus and he is not your God, then you might as well call on the saints or Mary like the Catholics do.

    This is in violation of the first and second commandments!

    And to the Father, is no less than being a spiritist who calls on the dead!

    Prayer is reserved for God alone!

    :O

    #53048
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    So you fellowship with Christians without praying to them?

    #53052
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    So you fellowship in the Holy Spirit with believers without praying to the believers or the Holy Spirit?

    2 Corinthians 13:14
    The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit, be with you all.

    So why do think fellowship with Christ must mean prayer to him?

    #53060

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 24 2007,13:34)
    Hi W,
    So you fellowship in the Holy Spirit with believers without praying to the believers or the Holy Spirit?

    2 Corinthians 13:14
    The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit, be with you all.

    So why do think fellowship with Christ must mean prayer to him?


    NH

    If you cant see the difference in “Spiritually calling” on someone like the Lord and talking to a man face to face.

    What can I say?

    You havent told me the difference between “talking to” the Father and “praying to” the Father.

    ???  ???  ???

    #53062
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    We are speaking of fellowship here.

    #53066

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 24 2007,15:14)
    Hi W,
    We are speaking of fellowship here.


    NH

    Yes, and fellowship with an unseen God is prayer!

    Fellowship is not silent is it NH? It involves communion,

    koinonia; which means…

    1) fellowship, association, community, communion, joint participation, intercourse
    a) *the share which one has in anything*, participation
    b) intercourse, fellowship, intimacy

    If you are fellowshipping with God you are “spiritually calling” on him and that is prayer.

    To “Spiritually call” on any other being than God is Idolatry!

    1 Cor 1:2
    Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all * in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord both theirs and ours*

    How do you explain this NH?

    Do you call upon the Lord Jesus?

    You dont think that is prayer. Please explain!

    ???

    #53067
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    So the word 'fellowship' has different meanings depending on the circumstances? Hmm.

    #53071

    Quote (t8 @ May 24 2007,12:03)
    To WJ.

    As for the other scriptures you quote, yes of course I agree with them.

    I have fellowship with God, Jesus, and God's spirit.

    The point here is that once again we have God and Jesus identified as 2 different identities.

    So the scriptures you quote actually reinforce the truth that for believers, there is one God the Father. Not one God the Father, Son, Spirit, as you teach.

    Trinitarianism should interpret God, Jesus, Spirit, as Father, Son, Spirit, son, Spirit. That makes 5 (a Quinity). So it is clear that God is the Father.

    Quote
    *The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion (koinonia) of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen*


    t8

    I am glad to see that you call upon Jesus, and fellowship with the Father and his Spirit.

    So you admit there is “The Father, and the Son and the Holy Spirit.

    Three persons that you fellowship with right?

    Yes, the Father and Jesus is two persons, but since we also fellowship with the Spirit, we have three persons, right?

    I am glad we agree.

    Now we have to reconcile our fellowship with the three persons with the scriptures that says that God is “Alone”, “By himself”, and that there is “None beside him”. right.

    Isa 43:11
    I, even I, am the LORD; and *beside me there is no saviour*.

    Isa 45:21
    Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD (YHWH)? and there is no God else beside me; a just *God and a Saviour*; there is *none beside me*.

    Hsa 13:4
    Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: *for there is no saviour beside me*.

    Isa 44:24
    Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, *I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone*; that spreadeth abroad *the earth by myself*;

    Isa 45:18
    For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens; *God himself that formed the earth and made it*; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the LORD; and *there is none else*.

    Since we know the Lord does not lie and or contradict himself then we have to compare these scriptures with these…

    Jn 1:
    1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
    2 The same was in the beginning with God.
    3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

    Heb 1:
    8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
    9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
    10 And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:

    I Tim 3:16
    16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

    Isa
    6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counseller, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

    Rev 1:8
    8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

    Rev 22:
    12 And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be.
    13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.

    Acts 20:28
    Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.

    I could go on, but hope you will get the point.

    t8

    How do you explain “spiritually calling” on another being besides God?

    You still havnt given me your take on Jn 1:1 and 20:28!

    ???

    #53072

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 24 2007,15:41)
    Hi W,
    So the word 'fellowship' has different meanings depending on the circumstances? Hmm.


    NH

    Dance, Dance!

    Is this all you know how to do friend? Respond to questions with questions.

    I always answer yours, you never answer mine, or so it seems!

    Ill ask again, if you dont answer I assume you dont have one.

    Fellowship is not silent is it NH?

    1 Cor 1:2
    Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all * in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord both theirs and ours*

    How do you explain this NH?

    Do you call upon the Lord Jesus?

    You dont think that is prayer. Please explain!

    You havent told me the difference between “talking to” the Father and “praying to” the Father.

    What is the difference, NH?

    ???

    #53074
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Paul did this too.
    Acts 22
    ” 16And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord. “
    He is our Saviour and our Lord.
    But his God is our God.

    #53075

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 24 2007,16:17)
    Hi W,
    Paul did this too.
    Acts 22
    ” 16And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord. “
    He is our Saviour and our Lord.
    But his God is our God.


    NH

    So does this mean you do pray to him?

    ???

    #53076
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Was Paul praying?

    #53078
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi w,
    You say
    “Three persons that you fellowship with right?”

    We fellowship WITH God and His Son

    1 John 1:3
    That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.

    But we fellowship in the Spirit not with the Spirit.

    Philippians 2:1
    [ Be Like Christ ] Therefore if there is any encouragement in Christ, if there is any consolation of love, if there is any fellowship of the Spirit, if any affection and compassion,

    and in that Spirit we fellowship with one another.

    1 John 1:7
    But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.

    But if we do not abide in the Word we lose fellowship with God and His son.

    2Jn
    9Anyone who goes too far and does not abide in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who abides in the teaching, he has both the Father and the Son.

    Trinity theory goes too far.

    #53079

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 24 2007,16:22)
    Hi W,
    Was Paul praying?


    NH

    I believe he did!

    But, you see Paul was a Hebrew of the Hebrews and a strict monotheist, and Paul would know that to pray to any other being other than God would be Idolatry.

    Yet Paul did!

    It is because like John and Peter and Thomas and Luke and Ignatius and many others, they believed Jesus was God and still is.

    He is one with the Father and the Spirit, the Lord from heaven. The Word/God made flesh. Yeshua, which means “YHWH is salvation”.

    The Father tells us to come to the Son, but men are trying to climb up some other way.

    Read the Acts and see what God they preached!

    :O

    #53081
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    How is calling on Jesus prayer?
    Your doctrine enlarges line by line.

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