Trinity Debate – 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

Subject:  1 Corinthians 15:24-28 disproves the Trinity Doctrine
Date: April 10 2007
Debaterst8  & Is 1: 18


t8

To prove that the Trinity Doctrine is the invention of man and not from scripture, I give 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 as a proof text.

24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.

25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet.

26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death.

27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.

28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This piece of text is very interesting because it reveals God’s plan and will. This plan shows us the following:

 

  • At the end of this age, Jesus hands over the Kingdom to God the Father.
  • Before the end, Christ rules until all enemies are under his feet.
  • God puts all under Christ’s feet. All except God (as you would expect).
  • In the end, the son will be subject to God the Father, so that God can dwell in all.

 

The first point I want to talk about is the truth that all is/will be under Christ except God.

So from this text at least, we have a clear explanation as to redemptive plan of God through Christ and in explaining this, it actually says that all will be under his feet except God. So to take the great authority that Christ has to mean that he is God, is obviously incorrect when we read and understand 1 Corinthians 24-28.

The first century was a very different time to now and we should be careful to view their time through todays paradigm. For example, they didn’t have a Trinity doctrine back then and never used the word Trinity in scripture. The absence of such a teaching and usage in the bible is evident because the Trinity doctrine came into existence hundreds of years later.

This is why 1 Corinthians can clearly say that Jesus isn’t God with no hesitation. It doesn’t say that Jesus isn’t God in defense of those who say that he is, it simply says it innocently within a different context because saying that he was actually part of a Trinity God wasn’t an issue in that time.

“Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”

This particular verse points out that God himself put everything under Christ and God is identified earlier in verse 24 as the Father.

Now in these times and in times past the world is and has been drunk on the wine of Babylon and given this influence, I doubt that any Trinitarian in any century could write 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 from his own theology because he would have to write about God as being the Father and not the son.

A Trinitarian who wanted to convey the meaning of 1 Corinthians 15:27 and keep his theology intact would most likely say something like:
“….it is clear that this doesn’t include God the Father who put everything under God the son”. 

Even then, a Trinitarian probably wouldn’t write such a text because it would infringe on his version of co-equal.

But sadly for Trinitarians but joyfully for the truth, it says “…it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ.”.

God and Christ are 2 different identities in these verses, that is clear. It is also clear that God is identified as the Father and when read as such, the text makes perfect sense as you find with hundreds of other scriptures.

If Paul believed in the Trinitarian doctrine as Trinitarians must claim, then Paul must have had a lapse in memory that day, for he clearly talks of God and Christ as two. In fact Paul must have had a very bad memory problem, because he neglected to mention or teach the Trinity in any of his letters. If the Trinity Doctrine was true and a foundational truth that many claim, then we could also say that Paul was quite neglectful for not including it in his writings.

So perhaps it is possible that the Trinity Doctrine wasn’t something that Paul taught or believed at all. Perhaps that doctrine gained prominence when Athanasus and the Emperor Constantine did their works after the time of Paul.

Perhaps it is also possible that Paul knew what he was talking about when he said:

2 Thessalonians 2:3
Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 
&
Acts 20:29
29 I know that after I leave, savage wolves will come in among you and will not spare the flock.
30 Even from your own number men will arise and distort the truth in order to draw away disciples after them.
31 So be on your guard! Remember that for three years I never stopped warning each of you night and day with tears.




Is 1:18

1 Corinthians 15:24-28
24 Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

This proof text is, I think, excellent evidence against modalism but could not be considered a solid refutation of the trinity doctrine. Here is why:1. Although two persons are mentioned in the text (“God the Father” and “Christ”) there is no mention of, or allusion to, their respective ontologies.2. Although one (Christ) is clearly portrayed in a position of submission to the other (God the Father), this is perfectly compatible with trinitarian dogma.

So again we have a proof text that has been porported to debunk the trinity doctrine but falls well short of the mark. Okay, I guess I should expand on both of these points:-

In expansion of point #1 I’ll write this:

Let’s be clear about this, the requisite evidence to disprove trinitarianism must strike at the foundation of what they believe, which, in a nut shell, is this:

YHWH is plurality within ontological unity. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three distinct personages, each sharing the substance/essence/nature that makes God God.

Is there anything in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 text that challenged this statement? If so, I don’t recognise it. Yes, Paul certainly makes a distinction between the two persons of the Father and Son, which does appear to invalidate the modalist’s concept that the Father and Son are merely modes/manifestations of the same One divine personage, but it is not legitimate proof against the doctrine of the trinity. And let’s remember this, we are explicitly told in Phil. 2:6 that the Logos existed (perpetually) in the form (nature) of God, in John 1:1c that the Logos “was God”, and in Heb 1:3 that the Son’s essence/substance (Gr. “hypostasis”) is an exact representation of the Father’s, so on what grounds could it possibly be argued that His very being was inferior? It can’t.

So what of Paul’s use of the appellatives “God” (Gr. theos) to designate the Father and “Christ” (or “Son” in some MSS – e.g. textus receptus) to designate Yeshua? Well a cursory examination of Paul’s writings will reveal that usually “theos” is used by him in reference to the Father (but sometimes the Son) and “kurios” is usually used in reference to Yehsua (but also the Father). Other authors, like Luke for instance, also showed a remarkable ambiguity in the use of the term “kurios” relative to Jesus and the Father. Both theos and kurios are appropriate designations to identify the Most High God, YHWH, in scripture so it’s seems a perfectly legitimate literary mechanism to assign different terms (which both denote deity) to each person when both are in view. This would serve to distinguish the two individual persons of the Father and Son without invoking modalistic thought (as would occur if either theos or kurios was used for each) but without delineating them ontologically. So Paul’s ascription of theos to the Father in the 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 passage and “Christos” to Yeshua is not telling us that Yeshua is not “God” (which would be in direct contradiction to his explicit affirmation in Titus 2:13), it’s simply Paul’s way of distinguishing the persons of the Father and Son in the text. Nothing more.

In expansion of point #2 I’ll write this:

As I previously mentioned in the last proof text I responded to Yeshua is a man, born of woman and born under the law (Gal. 4:4). As a man subject to the law he MUST assume the role of subservient to the Father, His God. Had He not been subservient to His Father in accordance with the Law He would not have been the sinless Lamb of God, the sacrifice was meaningless and the sin dilemma remains in effect for mankind. So the submission demonstrated in NT scripture is a function of the incarnation (when deity put on humanity), not a comment of His intrinsic nature relative to His Father’s. Is this a valid refutation of the doctrine? No. Trinitarians, as far I can tell, affirm the humanity of Christ. The line of authority elucidated in 1 Cor 15:27-28 is a natural consequence of His incarnation, when he “became flesh” (John 1:14) it was to be forever….

Just in closing, it’s interesting to compare verse 28 with a passage that Paul penned in his letter to the Colossians (Col. 3:11)

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all. (1 Corinthians 15:28)

cf.

a renewal in which there is no distinction between Greek and Jew, circumcised and uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all. (Colossians 3:11, cf. Eph. 1:23)

The grammar that was used of “God” in 1 Corinthians was also used of “Christ” in Colossians. I really like what C. H. Spurgeon wrote about this verse – “for Christ is not almost all, but all in all.” (source). Indeed Christ is all. Amen to that.


Discussion

  • This topic is empty.
Viewing 20 posts - 241 through 260 (of 522 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • #52874
    Not3in1
    Participant

    See also the literal translation. (LITV)
    *************
    Thanks, CB, I'll check this one out too! :)

    #52889
    Tim2
    Participant

    Hi t8,

    My point was that praying to Jesus alone doesn't exclude the Father, and I don't see how you can say that it does.

    Quote
    I think I have made it clear that the attributes/postion/priviledge you speak of that makes Christ God to you, also refer to us (believers/followers of Christ).

    Your evidence is:

    Quote
    John 14:20
    On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you.

    John 17:21
    that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me.

    First of all, the attributes of Christ that believers do not possess have been listed many times on this website.  He is Theos, Lord, Savior, Rock, First and Last, the image of God, the Wisdom and Power of God, the Radiance of God, the Word of God, the only begotten Son of God, the exact representation of His person, the Truth, the Life, the true Light, the true God, the Lord of Glory, Lord of all, the Christ over all, the Author of Life, our Lord and our God, He had glory with the Father before the world was, He sanctifies Himself, He sends the Holy Spirit, the Holy Spirit receives of Him, He is before all things, all things were made through Him and for Him, and all things are through Him.  (To name just a few.)  None of these “attributes/position/privileges” of Jesus are given to the church.  I can't believe that these glorious praises would be given to anyone other than YHWH Himself.

    Quote
    John 14:20
    On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you.

    Note that it doesn't directly say, “You are in the Father,” but that Jesus is the link, as He is everywhere in the Bible.  Now if we are united to God through Christ, in the course of time, that is clear proof that we are not God, for we have to be taken from our natural state, outside of God, and be united to Him through the Son.  But if the Son has always been one with the Father, from all eternity, that is clear proof that the Son is God, for what creature can be one with God, when even the seraphim shield their face from Him (Isaiah 6:2)?  But I know you don't believe the Son is a creature, but rather that He is of the substance of the Father, just inferior to Him, which I would like you to explain, whenever you can.

    Quote
    John 17:21
    that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me.

    Again, the first thing to note is that the Father and the Son are one eternally, whereas believers have to be united to Them through the work of the Son; which shows that the Son is of the nature of the Father, but believers are not, and can only have union with the Father through the One who is of the Father's nature, the Son.  This much I know you agree with from your website, but you still say the Son is inferior to the Father, although they are of the same substance, and I would like you please to explain how this can be.

    Tim

    #52898
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Tim2,
    You say
    'First of all, the attributes of Christ that believers do not possess have been listed many times on this website. He is Theos, Lord, Savior, Rock, First and Last, the image of God, the Wisdom and Power of God, the Radiance of God, the Word of God, the only begotten Son of God, the exact representation of His person, the Truth, the Life, the true Light, the true God, the Lord of Glory, Lord of all, the Christ over all, the Author of Life, our Lord and our God, He had glory with the Father before the world was, He sanctifies Himself, He sends the Holy Spirit, the Holy Spirit receives of Him, He is before all things, all things were made through Him and for Him, and all things are through Him. (To name just a few.) None of these “attributes/position/privileges” of Jesus are given to the church.”

    Then you lapse into human LOGIC and ADD

    ' I can't believe that these glorious praises would be given to anyone other than YHWH Himself.”

    By whose authority can you make the Son the same as the Father?

    #52901
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Tim2 @ May 24 2007,02:30)
    Hi t8,

    My point was that praying to Jesus alone doesn't exclude the Father, and I don't see how you can say that it does.


    Hi Tim2.

    I didn't say that it did.

    I said that if Jesus is one with God, then that shouldn't be taken to mean that he is God. A man can be one with his wife, but that doesn't make the man the wife. In fact saying that you are one with another is an admission that there is more than one person/identity.

    Being one means unity, it doesn't mean unit.

    In addition to this fact, Stephen called upon God and then spoke to Jesus who was at the right hand of God.

    It is not complicated and we don't need the Trinity doctrine to understand this. It is straightforward. Stephen called upon God and spoke to Christ who was at his right hand side.

    That is what is written.

    No need to put on Trinity glasses for this one either.

    #52908
    Tim2
    Participant

    Hi t8,

    Quote
    Stephen called upon God and then spoke to Jesus who was at the right hand of God.


    Well, I don't see “He called on God and then Jesus” anywhere in the text; but everyone can see that just by reading it. I'd rather discuss the other stuff we've brought up, if you're willing?

    Quote
    I said that if Jesus is one with God, then that shouldn't be taken to mean that he is God. A man can be one with his wife, but that doesn't make the man the wife. In fact saying that you are one with another is an admission that there is more than one person/identity.

    Well this supports the Trinity, except for the denial that Jesus is God. You say more there is more than one person in marriage, and you are right, just as there is more than one person in the Godhead! Marriage is the image of the Trinity: multiple persons and one flesh, just as God is multiple persons and one Divine substance. You may say there are only two persons in one marriage, but we all know that when man and woman become one flesh, there proceeds a third person from their love.

    Would you like to respond to the rest of what I wrote above, please?

    Tim

    #52914
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi Tim2,
    Speaking of offensive doctrine the comparison of Father and Son producing a Spirit comes close.

    #52951

    Is 1:18

    How True. Just shows the arrogance and the fallacy of the Arian followers and to what extreme they will go to reject the Deity of our Lord and God.

    I wonder how they even got saved apart from praying to Jesus.

    Acts 2:21
    And it shall come to pass, that *whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved*.

    Acts 4:10
    Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that *by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth*, whom ye crucified, whom God raised from the dead, even by him doth this man stand here before you whole.
    11 *This is the stone which was set at naught of you builders, which is become the head of the corner.*
    12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for *there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved*.

    1 Cor 1:2
    Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all * in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lordboth theirs and ours*

    Its quite amazing how that the Apostles went everywhere preaching Jesus who was crucified and risen from the dead, how they could not have mentioned once “Father”, or given us an example of someone getting saved by praying to the Father in Jesus name, or by performing a miracle or any work by praying to the Father in Jesus name?

    So we are to assume according to the unbelievers that they didn’t pray? I think not.

    Tell me unbelievers how Jesus was preached, and his resurrection, and that he was alive, that men would not call out to the one who is being preached?

    Now If Jesus was still dead. Yep, we shouldn’t pray to him.

    But “No Man” can be saved apart from calling on the name of Jesus!!! You sugarcoat it if you want, but “Calling on Jesus” is prayer.

    Men claim to follow Jesus but do not even obey the Fathers commands…

    Jn 5:
    22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
    23 That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.

    Honour Greek “timao”, which means

    1) to estimate, fix the value
    a) for the value of something belonging to one's self
    2) to honour, to have in honour, to revere, venerate

    How can you “revere”, “venerate”, fix value upon. Or highly esteem, or call him your Lord and Master, and not speak to him?

    Is he just an image in your head. Or is he a real person who according to 2 Cor 13:15 who lives inside of you…

    2 Cor 13:15
    Examine yourselves, whether ye be in the faith; prove your own selves. Know ye not your own selves, how that *Jesus Christ is in you, except ye be reprobates*?

    How can you develop an intimate relationship with the one who is supposed to be your husband, and you his bride?

    2 Cor 11:
    2 For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have *espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ*.
    3 But I fear, lest by any means, as *the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ*.
    4 For if he that cometh *preacheth another Jesus, whom we have not preached, or if ye receive another spirit, which ye have not received, or another gospel, which ye have not accepted*, ye might well bear with him.

    Have you since Christ came into you life, become reprobate?
    Have you received another Jesus?
    Have you received another Spirit?

    The simplicity of the Gospel is “Christ” in us the hope of Glory! He is our husband. We are espoused to him. We are his body. His bride.

    Do you “Dishonour” your husband by not speaking to him?

    Does he call your name and you not respond to him?

    Does he give you direction and help and wisdom and Love and encouragement and strength and truth and hope and healing and prosperity, and you do not “thank him”?

    You cannot go to the Father nor have a relationship with the Father apart from the Son.

    He that hath the Son hath the Father.

    Hear the word of the Father O ye unbelievers…

    Jn 6:37
    All that the *Father giveth me shall come to me*; and him that *cometh to me I will in no wise cast out*.

    Tell me if the Father means we are to come to the Son and not talk nor pray to him?

    Is this what you believe the Father means?

    Jn 6:
    44 *No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him*: and I will raise him up at the last day.
    45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me*.

    Surely, you don’t mean we are to come to our Lord and Savior and sit at his feet to be taught of him, and yet not speak to him. The Father draws us to Jesus, can you see that?

    Is this what the Arianistic teaching would have us believe?

    Jn 6:65
    And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that *no man can come unto me*, except it were given unto him of my Father.

    Jn 14:23
    Jesus answered and said unto him, *If a man love me, he will keep my words*: and my Father will love him, and *we will come unto him, and make our abode with him*.

    Jesus said…
    Matt 11:
    27 All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.
    28 *Come unto me*, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and *I will give you rest*.
    29 Take my yoke upon you, and *learn of me*; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and ye shall find rest unto your souls.
    30 For my yoke is easy, and my burden is light.

    Tell me O Arians, why did not Jesus in context of the verses, say go to the Father in my name, all ye that…?

    Those of you who do not talk to the one who the Father says you are to go to. How do you explain this?

    Truly our fellowship is with the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit…

    1 Jn 1:3
    *That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship (koinonia) with us: and truly our fellowship (koinonia) is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ*.

    koinonia Greek; which means…

    1) fellowship, association, community, communion, joint participation, intercourse
    a) the share which one has in anything, participation
    b) intercourse, fellowship, intimacy

    Do you see anything in this verse that makes fellowshipping with the Father any different than with the Son?

    Or in the following verse speaking of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit?

    2 Cor 13:14
    *The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion (koinonia) of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen*

    How do you have this kind of fellowship without prayer?

    ???

    #52956
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi w,
    You say
    “How can you develop an intimate relationship with the one who is supposed to be your husband, and you his bride”
    Then you say
    “How do you have this kind of fellowship without prayer?”
    Do brides pray to their husbands?

    #52958

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 23 2007,18:36)
    Hi w,
    You say
    “How can you develop an intimate relationship with the one who is supposed to be your husband, and you his bride”
    Then you say
    “How do you have this kind of fellowship without prayer?”
    Do brides pray to their husbands?


    NH

    You are lying to yourself if you believe that talking to Jesus who is unseen is not prayer!

    :O

    #52959
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Is that prayer -according to the teaching of Jesus?

    #52962
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 24 2007,13:39)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 23 2007,18:36)
    Hi w,
    You say
    “How can you develop an intimate relationship with the one who is supposed to be your husband, and you his bride”
    Then you say
    “How do you have this kind of fellowship without prayer?”
    Do brides pray to their husbands?


    NH

    You are lying to yourself if you believe that talking to Jesus who is unseen is not prayer!

    :O


    On this issue I would like to say that many people when they saw Christ spoke to him. If that is called prayer, then I guess the disciples prayed to him every time they spoke to him.

    Stephen saw Christ. If I saw Christ, I would probably say something too. I personally wouldn't consider that prayer. It would be direct communication or conversation. The same kind of thing I do everyday with many people.

    I don't think we need to caught up in whether this is how God taught us to pray, it obviously isn't. Stephen spoke to Christ from what I can see. I don't think it is anymore complicated than the text describes.

    That is my humble opinion anyway.

    #52963
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Cult Buster @ May 22 2007,19:31)
    Arianism is blasphemous. Repent!


    Which is worse. Arianism or Athanasiusism?

    I don't hold to either, but you come across as a follower of Athanasius.

    Maybe you need to repent Cult B?

    What do you think?

    #52967
    Cult Buster
    Participant

    Nick

    Quote
    Hi Cb,
    Is that what you call prayer and worship?

    Nick. If the following scripture is not describing worship, then what is worship?

    Stephen was kneeling and praying directly to Jesus. There is no evidence that he was praying to Jesus in the Fathers name, or that he was praying to the Father in Jesus' name.
    Stephen was kneeling in prayer to Jesus.

    Look again!

    From the Literal Translation Bible. (LITV)

    Act 7:59  And they stoned Stephen, invoking and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit. .
    Act 7:60  And placing the knees, he cried out with a loud voice, Lord, do not make stand this sin to them. And having said this, he fell asleep.

    See also from the YLT (1898 Young's Literal Translation)

    Act 7:59  and they were stoning Stephen, calling and saying, `Lord Jesus, receive my spirit;'
    Act 7:60  and having bowed the knees, he cried with a loud voice, `Lord, mayest thou not lay to them this sin;' and this having said, he fell asleep.
     

    Stephen was kneeling and praying directly to Jesus. Stephen was worshiping Jesus.

    Rev 19:10  tells us to worship only God:

    Jesus is Yahweh God    :O

    #52970
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote
    Jesus is Yahweh God

    CultB, you didn't give a book and verse number. So I couldn't find that one.

    :D

    #52983

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ May 23 2007,19:06)
    Hi W,
    Is that prayer -according to the teaching of Jesus?


    NH

    Then you give me the definition of prayer!

    Tell me what is the difference in “talking to”, the Father and “praying to” the Father?

    Please elaborate!

    ???

    #52984

    Quote (Tim2 @ May 23 2007,07:30)
    Hi t8,

    My point was that praying to Jesus alone doesn't exclude the Father, and I don't see how you can say that it does.

    Quote
    I think I have made it clear that the attributes/postion/priviledge you speak of that makes Christ God to you, also refer to us (believers/followers of Christ).

    Your evidence is:

    Quote
    John 14:20
    On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you.

    John 17:21
    that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me.

    First of all, the attributes of Christ that believers do not possess have been listed many times on this website.  He is Theos, Lord, Savior, Rock, First and Last, the image of God, the Wisdom and Power of God, the Radiance of God, the Word of God, the only begotten Son of God, the exact representation of His person, the Truth, the Life, the true Light, the true God, the Lord of Glory, Lord of all, the Christ over all, the Author of Life, our Lord and our God, He had glory with the Father before the world was, He sanctifies Himself, He sends the Holy Spirit, the Holy Spirit receives of Him, He is before all things, all things were made through Him and for Him, and all things are through Him.  (To name just a few.)  None of these “attributes/position/privileges” of Jesus are given to the church.  I can't believe that these glorious praises would be given to anyone other than YHWH Himself.

    Quote
    John 14:20
    On that day you will realize that I am in my Father, and you are in me, and I am in you.

    Note that it doesn't directly say, “You are in the Father,” but that Jesus is the link, as He is everywhere in the Bible.  Now if we are united to God through Christ, in the course of time, that is clear proof that we are not God, for we have to be taken from our natural state, outside of God, and be united to Him through the Son.  But if the Son has always been one with the Father, from all eternity, that is clear proof that the Son is God, for what creature can be one with God, when even the seraphim shield their face from Him (Isaiah 6:2)?  But I know you don't believe the Son is a creature, but rather that He is of the substance of the Father, just inferior to Him, which I would like you to explain, whenever you can.

    Quote
    John 17:21
    that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me.

    Again, the first thing to note is that the Father and the Son are one eternally, whereas believers have to be united to Them through the work of the Son; which shows that the Son is of the nature of the Father, but believers are not, and can only have union with the Father through the One who is of the Father's nature, the Son.  This much I know you agree with from your website, but you still say the Son is inferior to the Father, although they are of the same substance, and I would like you please to explain how this can be.

    Tim


    Tim

    Excellent points!

    :D

    #52985

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 20 2007,20:30)

    Quote (t8 @ May 20 2007,20:19)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 21 2007,15:03)
    For me it's more straight forward than that. I talk to Him.


    Hi Is 1:18.

    Don't forget the others too.

    When Trinitarians pray to YHWH, they pray to a HIM and yet can talk to three persons.

    The ironic thing here is that they should pray to THEM if they wish to be grammatically correct. Otherwise I can only conclude that they pray to the one substance, which seems rather odd don't you think?

    Surely, when we talk to a person (human), we talk to them and not their substance or nature. So if we talk to God, should we talk to his substance? If not, then I think you should at least refer to the Trinity as THEM, because they are after all 3 so-called persons.

    That would to me be more honest, than praying to 3 and addressing them as 1 which seems designed to appeal to the language found in scripture about God being one and God being a HIM.

    It actually comes across as deceptive to me. God is triune, but we will address him as HIM so that we are not accused of polytheism.

    The only excuse I can see for calling God HIM from a Trinitarian perspective is that they address the substance. But that seems very odd as I said before and it also seems to border on New Age  philosophy in that God is a substance or energy.


    :p  :p  :p  

    T8,
    No body prays to a substance. Kindly cease and desist from constantly using the straw man fallacy. It's childish and impresses no one. Be a grown up t8.


    Is 1:18

    Amen.

    Foolish logic of an Arian.

    Definition of Arian… “one who does not believes Jesus is God in the flesh.

    :)

    #52986

    Quote (kenrch @ May 21 2007,02:53)

    Quote (Is 1:18 @ May 20 2007,20:11)
    Not3,
    There is a bigger picture to consider here. Yeshua wants a relationship with substance.

    Matthew 7:21-23
    21″Not everyone who says to Me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter. 22″Many will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?' 23″And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.'

    I hope you will reconsider your stance on prayer to Yeshua. I'm sure He wants to hear from you.


    Jesus said He would deny those who work lawlessness.  You did read that right IS.

    The ony thing I know is that Jesus said to pray to the our Father who is in heaven.
    If you pray to Jesus then you are NOT doing the will of the Father praying to the Son.

    Where in God's word does it say to pray to the SON?

    OH! That's one of the Harlot's ideas :laugh:

    Sorry it  just amazes me how you can use the very scripture that points to your error.  The deception of the Harlot!

    I know I have read the bible for years then the same scripture all of a sudden opens my eyes as I read it again for the first time.

    I know you are sincere IS.  God bless you!

    IHN&L,

    Ken


    K

    You say…

    Quote
    Where in God's word does it say to pray to the SON?

    1 Cor 1:2 KJV
    *Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:*

    NIV
    To the church of God in Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus and called to be holy, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ–their Lord and ours:

    NASB
    To the church of God which is at Corinth, to those who have been sanctified in Christ Jesus, saints by calling, with all who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, their Lord and ours:

    Paul says those who are “sanctified” and called to be saints call on Jesus.

    I would assume that those who are “not sanctified” and called do not call on Jesus!

    :O

    #52987

    Quote (Cult Buster @ May 22 2007,21:55)
    See also the literal translation. (LITV)

    Act 7:59  And they stoned Stephen, invoking and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.
    Act 7:60  And placing the knees, he cried out with a loud voice, Lord, do not make stand this sin to them. And having said this, he fell asleep.

    Stephen was kneeling and praying directly to Jesus. Stephen was worshiping Jesus.

    Rev 19:10  tells us to worship only God:


    Amen CB

    Not to mention Stephen calls out for “Jesus” to recieve his Spirit!

    Why didnt he say “Father into thy hands I committ my Spirit?”

    Because Jesus is his Lord and God.

    :D

    #52992
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi W,
    Would those who are in the vine not call out to be one with him at death?
    Hades has no place for us but the mansions of Christ await.

Viewing 20 posts - 241 through 260 (of 522 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.

© 1999 - 2024 Heaven Net

Navigation

© 1999 - 2023 - Heaven Net
or

Log in with your credentials

or    

Forgot your details?

or

Create Account