January 16, 2018 at 7:07 am #820804
I believe many people are caused to misunderstand scriptures by wrong translations, for instance lets take three verses about the same thing from MATTHEW, MARK, LUKE,
King James version
1..Matt 24:5…take heed that no man decieve you: “for many shall come in my name saying, I am (christ) and shall decieve many.
2..MARK 13:6…take heed lest any man decieve you: “for many shall come in my name saying I am (christ) and decieve many.
3..Luke 21:8…take heed that ye be not decieved: “for many shall come in my name saying, I am (christ) and decieve many.
The word (Christ) is in italics showing it was added to the text by translators. Some translations say, I am(He), also showing it was added to the texts, and the ARAMIC translations say, “many shall come in my name saying I am (THE LIVING GOD); and shall decieve many”.
I believe all those are corruptions of scriptures and are forcing the text to say what it is not specifically saying and only serves to decieve the readers. The text in my opinion should read this way.
Take heed lest any man decieve you: for many shall come in my name saying, I am , and shall decieve many. another words many shall profess Jesus as what ever and decieve many. The bottom line is that the deception that will take place will be about JESUS himself and who he really is.
What say you all?
Peace and love to you all. …….geneJanuary 16, 2018 at 8:35 am #820809
Words are added for clarification in Luke and Mark but not Matthew.
”For many will come in my name, saying
’I am the Christ’, and will mislead manyJanuary 16, 2018 at 9:18 am #820811
Nick….check all other translations and you will see, what i am saying. Why should anyone need to alter sentence structure. You say it’s for clarification but i say it clouds the truth. Jesus was just telling us that the deception comming was going to be about him, he was warning us ahead of time. The words “I AM” which was actually written there could imply many things about JESUS, SUCH AS , The preaching of Jesus as the I AM, could mean preaching him a the living GOD, as the ARAMAIC TEXT TRANSLATES it.. OR “I AM HE” AS MANY OTHER TEXTS TRANSLATES IT. Point is JESUS was not limiting it to just preaching him as the christ, because the Gnostic’s preached him as being a God, who was only desguised as a man, but was actually a God, they rejected him as a anointed man of GOD, WHICH WE KNOW HE WAS a anointed man of God. Another polnt is, saying Jesus was a anointed man or christo’s of God hardly decieves anyone. It apears that the closest translation may be the Aramaic version. Because we know preaching Jesus as a God is a deceptive lie.
Bottom line is, false teachings about JESUS IS the deceptions Jesus was talking about, and if the text had just been left along without tampering it would have given us that understanding.
Peace and love to you and yours. …..geneJanuary 16, 2018 at 11:51 am #820812
All the verses say they come in his name.
Surely then they come in the guise of Christianity to claim they too are anointed ones.January 16, 2018 at 2:16 pm #820813
Nick….but if they came in the name of a anointed one and decieve people then they were not actually anointed ones right. The text does not say they came in the name of christ saying “they are” christ, but says “they shall come in “my name” saying “I am” christ”. The word christ was added to the text and only serves to confuse . IT SHOULD HAVE BEEN LEFT ALONE WITHOUT ANY ALERATIONS, then it would let everyone understand that a false Jesus would be the object of decieving people, that is they would be preaching a false Jesus, not the true one and that would be what decieves them, like this,
Jesus IS God
Jesus preexisted his berth on this earth.
Jesus did not need to be anointed because he was already a God.
Jesus himself healed people
Jesus himself is the christ or anointing spirit, not the anointed one.
All of these are different way Jesus is preached by decieved christanity.
Peace and love to you and yours. ……geneJanuary 16, 2018 at 11:16 pm #820814
Which translation or translations, are you suggesting, do not cause confusing misunderstandings?
Ed JJanuary 17, 2018 at 4:42 am #820815
Edj….proberly most translations do, but that is why we need the SPIRIT OF TRUTH, to guide our understanding of them, i simply eliminate the added words where the text shows them as added. When not sure go to other translations and see what they say. Example, JESUS SAID “IT IS HARDER FOR A RICH MAN TO ENTER INTO THE KINGDOM OF GOD THAN A (CAMEL) TO GO THROUGH AN EYE OF A NEEDLE” , that would not be hard it would be impossible, but upon investigation you will find the word (camel) in ARAMAIC means (ROPE), which makes more sense right?, a very tiny rope might be able to go through the eye of a large needle. So i would conclude rope is most likely the right word.
The GREEK translations have all kind of word errors, one word in GREEK CAN BE TRANSLATED INTO AS MUCH AS five OR TWENTY DIFFERENT WORDS meaning different things, AS I RECALL READING. The translators who were most likely trinitarians tended to force the text to favor their religious convictions, so they chose words that better fit their beliefs. BUT THE SPIRIT OF TRUTH CAN GUIDE THROUGH THE MAZE IMO.
Peace and love to you and yours. ……..geneJanuary 17, 2018 at 2:37 pm #820828
Edj….proberly most translations do, …
Are you suggesting all English bibles are confusing translations?
Ed JJanuary 18, 2018 at 5:09 am #820871
Edj….yes as far as i know all do, some perhaps more then others. The oldest documents being translated i believe are the best, because trinitarian translators has forced the text in many places to fit there teachings over the years. There are books out there that show many of the errors, “MISS QUOTING JESUS” is a good one in my opinion. One scholar MILLS i believe said he found over 20,000, germatical errors in the Greek translations. That is why I believe we do need the Spirit of Truth to guide us, inorder to get the proper understandings.
Peace and love to you and yours. ……geneJanuary 22, 2018 at 9:48 am #820949t8Participant
- Topics started 875
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We know Jesus is not God. As for preexisting, some say yes and some say no. If he is the Logos, then did the logos that was With God exist?
Finally, we know God created all through his Word and to remove all confusion, we are also taught that God created all through the son of God.
Scripture is harmonious and consistent as to who that Word is and the role of that Word.
Then we are told that this Word became flesh. And if we deny Jesus Christ came in the flesh, then the spirit we are under is against God.
Antichrists will find a way, one way or another to deny he came in the flesh.
God created all through his Word and his Son. The Word became flesh and Jesus Christ came in the flesh.
There is harmony on who Jesus really is for those who love the truth and have eyes to see. There is a lot to who he is. Some believe God created a man called Jesus because of man’s sin. But he was of Heaven, unlike Adam who was of earth. God sent his son and he was born the messiah. He came in the flesh.January 22, 2018 at 9:55 am #820951
Was Jesus conceived in Mary?
Did Mary contribute to his being?January 22, 2018 at 10:00 am #820952t8Participant
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- Total replies 17,534
Being born of a woman is how you become human. I thought you would know this. It’s common knowledge and I have confidence that you do know this.January 22, 2018 at 10:36 am #820953
Was Jesus conceived in Mary?January 22, 2018 at 12:52 pm #820966
Was Jesus conceived in Mary?
See Nick, answering questions is not hard for me.
Why would you be a hypocrite and not answer mine?January 22, 2018 at 3:40 pm #820967
The question was not asked of you but t8.
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